A 2-year-old male is brought to the pediatrician by his parents, who are concerned because they have noticed that one of his testicles seems to be missing from the scrotum.
Upon examination, the doctor confirms that the right testicle is not palpable in the scrotal sac.
The left testicle is present and normal.
The parents are informed about the risk factors associated with this condition.
What condition is most likely being described?
Cryptorchidism.
Inguinal hernia.
Hydrocele.
Testicular torsion.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Cryptorchidism is the medical term for the failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum. The scenario describes a 2-year-old male with one non-palpable testicle, which is the hallmark of cryptorchidism. Risk factors include prematurity and low birth weight.
Choice B rationale
An inguinal hernia is a protrusion of abdominal contents through the inguinal canal. While it can present as a swelling in the groin area, it is distinct from a missing testicle in the scrotum. Examination would typically reveal a palpable mass that may reduce with gentle pressure.
Choice C rationale
A hydrocele is a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis, the sac surrounding the testicle. It typically presents as a painless swelling of the scrotum. The testicle is usually palpable within the fluid-filled sac.
Choice D rationale
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency involving the twisting of the spermatic cord, which cuts off blood supply to the testicle. It presents with sudden, severe scrotal pain, swelling, and often nausea and vomiting. The examination would reveal a tender, firm, and retracted testicle. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A high elevation in the white blood cell count, or leukocytosis, is an expected inflammatory response in appendicitis. While an elevated WBC count (normal range typically 4,500 to 11,000 cells/mcL) indicates infection or inflammation, it does not necessarily signal immediate, life-threatening complications requiring immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
Guarding, which is the tensing of abdominal muscles upon palpation, and rebound tenderness, pain that worsens when pressure is released, are classic signs of peritoneal irritation associated with appendicitis. These findings suggest inflammation of the peritoneum but do not indicate an immediate, critical emergency in the same way as sudden pain relief.
Choice C rationale
Sudden relief of pain in a child with appendicitis, followed by a rigid abdomen and fever, is a critical sign of a ruptured appendix and subsequent peritonitis. The rupture releases the pressure causing the initial pain, but the spillage of bowel contents leads to widespread inflammation of the peritoneum, a serious and potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate surgical intervention to prevent sepsis and other complications.
Choice D rationale
Abdominal tenderness in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), often referred to as McBurney's point, is a characteristic finding in appendicitis due to the inflammation of the appendix in this anatomical location. While it warrants investigation and treatment, localized tenderness alone does not indicate an immediate, life-threatening complication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Currant jelly stools (stools mixed with blood and mucus) and drawing the knees to the chest are classic signs and symptoms of intussusception in infants. The telescoping of one part of the intestine into another leads to bowel obstruction, inflammation, and bleeding, resulting in the characteristic stool appearance and abdominal pain that causes the infant to draw their knees up in an attempt to relieve the discomfort.
Choice B rationale
Ribbon-like stools and visible peristalsis are more characteristic of Hirschsprung's disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon), a condition where a segment of the colon lacks nerve cells, impairing motility and leading to constipation and a narrowed segment of the bowel. Visible peristalsis can occur due to the bowel trying to push stool through the narrowed segment.
Choice C rationale
Explosive watery diarrhea and fever are typical signs of gastroenteritis, an inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract usually caused by a viral or bacterial infection. While vomiting can occur in both conditions, the stool characteristics and the presence of fever are more indicative of gastroenteritis rather than intussusception.
Choice D rationale
Bright red blood in the stool without other symptoms is less specific to intussusception. While blood can be present, it is usually mixed with mucus, giving the currant jelly appearance. Bright red blood alone might suggest other conditions like anal fissures or lower gastrointestinal bleeding. .
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