A 23-year-old single mother of three visits the Department of Health walk-in clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, painful urination, fever, and vaginal discharge.
She states that these symptoms began three days ago and she initially thought it was a urinary tract infection (UTI) until the vaginal discharge became purulent and bloody.
She reports having three sexual partners over the past 60 days.
She has visited the clinic three times in the past 12 months for similar concerns, but no sexually transmitted infections were diagnosed on those three prior visits.
Given the history of clinic visits over the past 12 months with similar concerns, the nurse determines that client education should focus on prevention.
What type of preventive education should the nurse identify for this client?
Primary prevention, which would include education on safe sex practices.
Secondary prevention, which would include regular screenings for sexually transmitted infections.
Tertiary prevention, which would include education regarding prescribed treatments for sexually transmitted infections.
Quaternary prevention, which would include strategies to avoid unnecessary or harmful interventions.
The Correct Answer is A
Answer and explanation
The correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale
Primary prevention includes measures that prevent the occurrence of a specific disease or health condition. In the context of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), primary prevention would involve education on safe sex practices. This could include information on the use of condoms, the importance of regular STI testing, and the risks associated with having multiple sexual partners. Given the client’s history of multiple sexual partners and recurrent symptoms suggestive of STIs, education on safe sex practices would be an appropriate preventive strategy.
Choice B rationale
Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or health condition. Regular screenings for STIs fall under this category. However, given that the client has visited the clinic three times in the past 12 months with similar concerns but no STIs were diagnosed, secondary prevention may not be the most appropriate focus for this client.
Choice C rationale
Tertiary prevention involves managing disease post diagnosis to slow or stop disease progression through measures such as medication management and lifestyle changes. Education regarding prescribed treatments for STIs would fall under this category. However, since the client has not been diagnosed with an STI in her previous visits, tertiary prevention would not be the most appropriate focus for this client.
Choice D rationale
Quaternary prevention involves strategies to reduce or avoid unnecessary interventions in the health care system. This could include avoiding unnecessary diagnostic tests or treatments.
Given the client’s history and current symptoms, focusing on quaternary prevention would not be appropriate as it is important to identify the cause of her symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Answer and explanation The correct answer is B. Choice A rationale
Applying oxygen via a nasal cannula might help alleviate the client’s shortness of breath, but it does not address the potential cause of the client’s symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Given the client’s symptoms and potential exposure to an unknown substance, it is crucial to monitor his vital signs and cardiorespiratory status. This will help healthcare providers detect any changes in the client’s condition and respond appropriately.
Choice C rationale
Infusing IV fluid boluses might be necessary if the client is dehydrated, but there is no indication of this in the scenario.
Choice D rationale
Administering antiviral medication would be appropriate if the client were confirmed to have a viral infection. However, the client’s symptoms and history suggest a potential exposure to an unknown substance, which requires further evaluation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Perceived susceptibility.
Explanation:
The Health Belief Model (HBM) explains health-related behaviors based on an individual's perceptions. Perceived susceptibility refers to a person's belief about their risk of developing a disease. In this case, the client believes they are not susceptible to the flu, which influences their decision not to get vaccinated.
Why the other options are incorrect:
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A. Perceived barriers – This refers to obstacles preventing someone from taking action, such as cost or fear of side effects. The client did not mention barriers, only their belief that they don’t get the flu.
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C. Perceived severity – This relates to how serious a person believes a condition is. The client did not indicate concern about how severe the flu might be, only that they don’t expect to get it.
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D. Perceived benefits – This focuses on a person’s belief in the effectiveness of an action. The client’s response does not express doubts about the vaccine’s benefits, just their belief that flu prevention is unnecessary for them.
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