A 25-year-old patient is admitted to the ambulatory surgery unit to receive two units of whole blood.
The patient has anemia, systemic lupus erythematosus, hypertension, schizophrenia, and primary hypothyroidism.
The patient’s vital signs are BP 100/68, P 110, R 24, T 99.1 °F, O2-97%. The patient reports experiencing shortness of breath with exertion, fatigue, dizziness when standing, and an intolerance to cold temperatures.
Initial labs indicate an Hgb of 6.8, an Hct of 21.2, a CRP of 38, an albumin of 14, and an iron level of 9. The patient’s current medications include hydroxychloroquine 200 mg one BID, amlodipine 10 mg one PO daily, Citalopram 20 mg one PO daily, Lisinopril 20 mg one PO daily, sertraline 50 mg one daily, levothyroxine 75 mg one PO daily, Ferrous sulfate 30 mg one PO TID, and quetiapine 100 mg one PO HS. Which patient assessment findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse at this time? (Select all that apply)
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit.
Blood Pressure 100/68, Respirations 24.
Intolerance to cold.
Amlodipine.
Albumin.
Shortness of breath with exertion.
Dizziness when standing.
Correct Answer : A,B,F,G
Rationale for A: Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 6.8 g/dL is significantly below the normal range of 12-16 g/dL for women and 14-18 g/dL for men. This indicates severe anemia, which can cause several of the patient's reported symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, dizziness, and intolerance to cold. It's crucial to address this promptly as severe anemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and organ damage.
Hematocrit (Hct) of 21.2% is also below the normal range of 36-46% for women and 41-50% for men. Hct measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and its low value further confirms the presence of anemia.
Rationale for B: Blood Pressure 100/68, Respirations 24
Blood pressure of 100/68 mmHg is considered low, especially in a patient with a history of hypertension. This could be due to the anemia, as low red blood cell count can decrease blood volume and subsequently lower blood pressure. It's essential to monitor the patient's blood pressure closely, as hypotension can lead to dizziness, fainting, and even shock.
Respirations of 24 breaths per minute are slightly elevated above the normal adult range of 12-20 breaths per minute. This could be a compensatory mechanism for the anemia, as the body tries to increase oxygen intake. However, it could also indicate other underlying respiratory issues that need to be investigated.
Rationale for F: Shortness of breath with exertion
Shortness of breath (dyspnea) is a common symptom of anemia, as the body struggles to deliver enough oxygen to tissues during physical activity. This symptom warrants immediate attention, as it can significantly impact the patient's quality of life and could potentially signal worsening anemia or other cardiopulmonary problems.
Rationale for G: Dizziness when standing
Dizziness upon standing (orthostatic hypotension) is a sign of low blood pressure, which can be exacerbated by anemia. This can increase the risk of falls and injuries, especially in a patient with other health conditions. It's crucial to address this symptom to prevent potential complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Weight gain is the most objective and reliable indicator of improved nutritional status in patients with HIV-II and wasting syndrome. It directly reflects an increase in lean body mass, which is essential for restoring physical strength, immune function, and overall health.
A weight gain of 2 lb (1 kg) in a month is considered a clinically significant improvement for this patient population. It demonstrates that the patient is consuming more calories than they are expending, leading to a positive energy balance and tissue growth.
Other assessment findings, such as food intake, food choices, and oral discomfort, can be subjective and influenced by various factors, such as appetite, taste changes, nausea, fatigue, and psychosocial issues. While they provide valuable information about the patient's nutritional status, they do not directly measure the actual improvement in body composition.
Choice B rationale:
Consuming 90% of meals and snacks is a positive sign that the patient is adhering to their dietary recommendations. However, it does not guarantee that they are consuming enough calories to promote weight gain. The patient's individual energy needs and the nutritional content of the meals and snacks must be considered.
Choice C rationale:
Choosing high-protein foods is important for building and repairing tissues, but it does not ensure adequate overall caloric intake. The patient may still be experiencing a calorie deficit if they are not consuming enough total calories, even if they are focusing on protein-rich foods.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased oral discomfort can facilitate better food intake, but it does not directly reflect weight gain or improved nutritional status. The patient may still have challenges with appetite, nausea, or other factors that hinder their ability to consume enough calories.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Elevate the head of the bed to 35-45 degrees unless contraindicated:
Promotes venous return: Elevating the head of the bed reduces venous pooling in the lower extremities and promotes venous return to the heart. This helps to improve cardiac output and reduce the risk of fluid overload.
Reduces aspiration risk: Elevating the head of the bed also helps to prevent aspiration, as it keeps the head and neck in a more upright position. This allows for better drainage of secretions and reduces the chance of them entering the lungs.
Contraindications: There are a few contraindications to elevating the head of the bed, such as severe hypotension, head injury, or spinal injury. In these cases, the potential benefits of elevation must be weighed against the risks.
Choice B rationale:
Assess Vital Signs:
Baseline assessment: It's crucial to obtain baseline vital signs before administering any IV fluid to have a reference point for comparison. This allows for early detection of any changes that may indicate fluid overload or other complications.
Monitoring fluid status: Vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, provide important information about the patient's fluid status and hemodynamic stability. Changes in vital signs can signal fluid overload, dehydration, or other problems that may require intervention.
Detecting adverse reactions: Vital signs can also help to detect adverse reactions to the IV fluid, such as allergic reactions or anaphylaxis. Early identification of these reactions is essential for prompt treatment.
Choice D rationale:
Assess lung and heart sounds:
Baseline assessment: Assessing lung and heart sounds before IV fluid administration provides a baseline for comparison and helps to identify any preexisting conditions that may affect fluid tolerance.
Detecting fluid overload: Crackles in the lungs, increased heart rate, and extra heart sounds can indicate fluid overload, which can lead to pulmonary edema and heart failure.
Monitoring response to therapy: Lung and heart sounds can also be used to monitor the patient's response to IV fluid therapy. Improvement in lung sounds and heart rate can indicate a positive response to treatment.
Choice E rationale:
Obtain baseline weight:
Accurate fluid balance: Obtaining a baseline weight is essential for accurate assessment of fluid balance. It allows for tracking of fluid gains and losses and helps to prevent fluid overload or dehydration.
Monitoring fluid status: Changes in weight can reflect changes in fluid status. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, while weight loss can suggest dehydration.
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