A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, which was cultured from the urine. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Utilize a respirator when handling urine output.
Restrict visitors strictly to immediate family members only.
Wash hands only after removing gloves post-care.
Prepare to administer vancomycin.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Utilizing a respirator when handling urine output is not the most appropriate action for a nurse caring for a patient with MRSA.
MRSA is not typically transmitted through the air, but rather through direct contact with infected wounds or contaminated surfaces.
While a respirator may offer some protection against airborne particles, it is not necessary for routine care of a patient with MRSA.
It is more important to focus on hand hygiene and other infection control measures.
Choice B rationale:
Restricting visitors strictly to immediate family members only is not necessary for a patient with MRSA.
While it is important to limit the number of visitors to reduce the risk of spreading infection, there is no need to restrict visitors to immediate family members only.
Visitors should be instructed on proper hand hygiene and other infection control measures, and they should avoid contact with the patient's wounds or dressings.
Choice C rationale:
Washing hands only after removing gloves post-care is not sufficient for preventing the spread of MRSA. It is important to wash hands before and after any contact with the patient, even when wearing gloves.
This is because gloves can become contaminated with bacteria, and hand washing helps to remove any bacteria that may have gotten on the hands.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing to administer vancomycin is the most appropriate action for a nurse caring for a patient with MRSA. Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective against MRSA.
It is often used to treat MRSA infections, and it can help to prevent the infection from spreading.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis is characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and a high pCO2 (greater than 45 mmHg). In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), making this option less likely.
While the pCO2 is elevated (46 mmHg), the body has begun to compensate, as evidenced by the elevated HCO3 (29 mEq/L). This partial compensation does not align with an uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Choice B rationale:
Compensated Metabolic Acidosis would present with a normal pH (7.35-7.45) due to full compensation by the respiratory system. In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), which is not consistent with full compensation.
Additionally, the HCO3 is elevated (29 mEq/L), which is characteristic of metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis.
Choice C rationale:
Partially Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis is the most likely interpretation based on the ABG results. The pH is elevated (7.46), indicating alkalosis.
The HCO3 is also elevated (29 mEq/L), which is the primary cause of metabolic alkalosis.
The pCO2 is elevated (46 mmHg), which is a compensatory mechanism to try to normalize the pH. However, the compensation is not complete, as the pH is still slightly elevated.
This partial compensation is consistent with partially compensated metabolic alkalosis.
Choice D rationale:
Partially Compensated Respiratory Acidosis would present with a low pH (less than 7.35) and an elevated pCO2 (greater than 45 mmHg).
The HCO3 would also be elevated, but to a lesser degree than in metabolic alkalosis, as it's a secondary compensatory mechanism.
In this case, the pH is slightly elevated (7.46), making respiratory acidosis less likely.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing. This is the most likely explanation for why the client's pain is no longer being controlled by the same dose of medication. Tolerance is a physiological adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness over time. This means that the client's body is becoming less responsive to the medication, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief.
Choice B rationale:
There is likely a history of addiction. While it is possible that the client has a history of addiction, this is not the most likely explanation for why the medication is no longer controlling the pain. Addiction is a complex condition that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite negative consequences. It is not simply a matter of tolerance developing.
Choice C rationale:
The client is opiate naive. This means that the client has not previously been exposed to opioids. While opiate-naive clients may be more sensitive to the effects of opioids, they are also more likely to experience side effects, such as nausea and vomiting. The fact that the client has been receiving the same dose of medication for 2 days without experiencing side effects suggests that they are not opiate naive.
Choice D rationale:
Physical dependence. Physical dependence is a state of adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to withdrawal symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped. However, physical dependence does not necessarily mean that the medication is no longer effective in controlling pain.
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