A nurse is providing care for a patient who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, which was cultured from the urine. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Utilize a respirator when handling urine output.
Restrict visitors strictly to immediate family members only.
Wash hands only after removing gloves post-care.
Prepare to administer vancomycin.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Utilizing a respirator when handling urine output is not the most appropriate action for a nurse caring for a patient with MRSA.
MRSA is not typically transmitted through the air, but rather through direct contact with infected wounds or contaminated surfaces.
While a respirator may offer some protection against airborne particles, it is not necessary for routine care of a patient with MRSA.
It is more important to focus on hand hygiene and other infection control measures.
Choice B rationale:
Restricting visitors strictly to immediate family members only is not necessary for a patient with MRSA.
While it is important to limit the number of visitors to reduce the risk of spreading infection, there is no need to restrict visitors to immediate family members only.
Visitors should be instructed on proper hand hygiene and other infection control measures, and they should avoid contact with the patient's wounds or dressings.
Choice C rationale:
Washing hands only after removing gloves post-care is not sufficient for preventing the spread of MRSA. It is important to wash hands before and after any contact with the patient, even when wearing gloves.
This is because gloves can become contaminated with bacteria, and hand washing helps to remove any bacteria that may have gotten on the hands.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing to administer vancomycin is the most appropriate action for a nurse caring for a patient with MRSA. Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective against MRSA.
It is often used to treat MRSA infections, and it can help to prevent the infection from spreading.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Step 1: Divide the prescribed dose (40 mg) by the concentration on hand (30 mg/mL).
Step 2: Perform the calculation: 40 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 1.3333 mL.
Step 3: Round the answer to the nearest tenth: 1.3333 mL rounds to 1.3 mL.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
It is not accurate to state that the patient is at risk for seizures due to fungal infections. While fungal infections can occur in individuals with HIV-1, they are not a primary cause of seizures in this population.
Linking fungal infections directly to seizure risk without clear evidence could cause unnecessary anxiety in the patient. It's important to provide accurate and relevant information to patients.
Choice B rationale:
Responding with "I have no idea why you would be taking this drug" is unprofessional and unhelpful.
Nurses are expected to have a basic understanding of the medications their patients are taking and to be able to provide education and support.
It's essential to demonstrate knowledge and confidence when interacting with patients.
Choice C rationale:
While gabapentin can have mood-elevating effects in some individuals, it is not primarily used as an antidepressant. Mentioning this potential side effect without clarifying the primary purpose of the medication could mislead the patient. It's crucial to prioritize the main indication for the medication to avoid confusion.
Choice D rationale:
This is the most appropriate response because it accurately explains the primary reason for prescribing gabapentin to this patient.
Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, which is pain caused by nerve damage.
HIV-1 can often lead to neuropathic pain, making gabapentin a valuable treatment option in this population.
Providing clear and accurate information about medication purpose builds trust and understanding between the nurse and the patient.
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