A 25-year-old woman is visiting the prenatal clinic and shares with the nurse her desire to go "natural" with her pregnancy. She shows the nurse a list of herbal remedies that she wants to buy so that she can "avoid taking any drugs." Which statement by the nurse is correct?
"It is important to remember that herbal remedies do not have proven safety ratings for pregnant women."
"Most herbal remedies are not harmful and are safe for use during pregnancy."
"Keep in mind that products from different manufacturers are required to contain consistent amounts of the herbal products."
"Please read each label carefully before use to check for cautionary warnings."
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Herbal remedies lack FDA safety data; in pregnancy, untested substances risk fetal harm (e.g., teratogenicity), making this a critical caution.
Choice B reason: Claiming safety is false; many herbs (e.g., St. John’s Wort) affect pregnancy adversely, and without evidence, this misleads the patient dangerously.
Choice C reason: Consistency isn’t required; herbal products vary widely in potency, and this false assurance ignores regulatory gaps in supplement standardization.
Choice D reason: Labels help, but warnings are inconsistent; this shifts responsibility without addressing the lack of proven safety, a more pressing prenatal concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Separate syringes increase injection sites and patient discomfort; mixing is standard as Regular and NPH are compatible, optimizing insulin delivery efficiency and absorption.
Choice B reason: Drawing Regular (clear) before NPH (cloudy) in one syringe prevents contamination of the short-acting vial with the intermediate-acting insulin, ensuring accurate dosing and stability.
Choice C reason: Shaking insulin damages its structure; NPH requires gentle rolling to mix, while Regular needs no mixing, making vigorous shaking inappropriate for preparation.
Choice D reason: Drawing NPH first risks contaminating the Regular vial with NPH particles, altering its rapid action; the clear-to-cloudy sequence maintains insulin integrity and efficacy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood pressure matters but isn’t primary; opioids rarely cause acute hypotension initially, and respiratory depression is a more immediate life-threatening risk.
Choice B reason: Temperature is unrelated; opioids don’t primarily affect fever, and this assessment doesn’t address the critical safety concern of opioid administration.
Choice C reason: Pulse is secondary; opioids may slow heart rate mildly, but respiratory suppression is the urgent risk, requiring priority monitoring before dosing.
Choice D reason: Respiratory rate is critical; opioids depress the brainstem, risking apnea, and assessing breathing ensures safety before administering this high-risk medication.
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