A 32-year old female patient has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for her anxiety and is brought into the emergency department after taking 30 days' worth at one time. What antagonist for benzodiazepines may be used in this case?

Epinephrine

Atropine

Flumazenil

Naloxone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: Epinephrine is not an antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is primarily used in the treatment of anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest.
Choice B rationale: Atropine is not an antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is used to increase heart rate and treat certain types of poisoning.
Choice C rationale: Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines. It can be used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as in the case of the patient taking an excessive amount of lorazepam.
Choice D rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in reversing the effects of lorazepam overdose.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Both methadone and buprenorphine can be prescribed for the treatment of opioid use disorder, and their availability is not limited to specialized addiction treatment centers.
Choice B rationale: While both medications can cause respiratory depression, it is not a defining characteristic of their use in opioid use disorder treatment.
Choice C rationale: Physical dependence is a potential concern with both medications, but the statement that physical dependence on buprenorphine is high is not accurate.
Choice D rationale: The statement that "Methadone is not addictive" is not accurate; both methadone and buprenorphine are used to manage opioid addiction.

A. History of hyperlipidemia. B. History of congestive heart failure C. History of breast cancer D. History of arthritis

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Propofol is formulated in a lipid emulsion that can increase the serum triglyceride levels and cause pancreatitis, especially in patients with preexisting hyperlipidemia.
Choice B rationale: History of hyperlipidemia is not typically associated with an increased risk of adverse effects with propofol infusion.
Choice C rationale: History of breast cancer is not directly associated with an increased risk of adverse effects with propofol infusion.
Choice D rationale: History of arthritis is not directly associated with an increased risk of adverse effects with propofol infusion.

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A 32-year old female patient has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for her anxiety and is brought into the emergency department after taking 30 days' worth at one time. What antagonist for benzodiazepines may be used in this case?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is asked by a client to explain the differences and similarities between methadone and buprenorphine for treatment of opioid use disorder. The nurse's best response is

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse learns that a patient will receive an infusion of Propofol for a procedure. The nurse knows that the following will increase risk for adverse effects with this infusion:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient plans to stop taking prescribed clonidine to treat hypertension because of the side effect of dry mouth. Which action by the nurse is best?

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The nurse is administering diphenhydramine (Benedryl), a neuropharmacologic agent that works by doing what?

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A nurse is instructing a client regarding Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) for the treatment of Parkinson's Disease. The nurse tells the client which of the following is a side effect of the medication?

A 32-year old female patient has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for her anxiety and is brought into the emergency department after taking 30 days' worth at one time. What antagonist for benzodiazepines may be used in this case?

The patient with an RA flare is prescribed 3 weeks of prednisone. Which med dose may need to be adjusted?