A 35-year-old client with OCD spends several hours each day arranging and rearranging household items in a specific order. The client becomes extremely distressed if the items are not arranged correctly. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Assist the client in developing a structured schedule for activities of daily living
Provide education about the irrationality of the behavior
Collaborate with the client to set realistic goals for behavior change
Encourage the client to resist the urge to rearrange items
The Correct Answer is C
A. A structured schedule may help with overall daily functioning, but it does not specifically address the compulsive behavior.
B. Educating the client about the irrationality of the behavior is unlikely to reduce the compulsions, as this is a hallmark of OCD, where the individual is often unable to control the urges despite understanding their irrationality.
C. Collaborating with the client to set realistic, gradual goals for changing the compulsive behavior is key in treating OCD. This approach allows the client to have input into their treatment plan and promotes realistic, achievable progress.
D. Encouraging the client to resist the urge to rearrange items without providing a structured approach may lead to increased anxiety and frustration. Gradual exposure and behavior modification are more effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A mother with a healthy pregnancy and delivery has a lower risk, though postpartum depression can still occur, it is not as likely as in cases with more risk factors.
B. A first-time mother with a supportive partner has protective factors such as a strong support system, reducing the risk of postpartum depression.
C. A history of depression and minimal social support are significant risk factors for postpartum depression. Previous mental health issues increase the likelihood of postpartum mood disorders, and lack of support makes coping more difficult.
D. A lack of a family history of mental illness does not eliminate the risk of postpartum depression, especially if other risk factors, such as previous depression or limited support, are present.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A level of 1.8 mEq/L is too high for initial treatment, as it is above the therapeutic range.
B. A level of 1.8 mEq/L is not within the maintenance treatment level, which is typically 0.6–1.2 mEq/L.
C. The level is above the therapeutic level, not below it.
D. A lithium level of 1.8 mEq/L is above the therapeutic range (0.6–1.2 mEq/L) and is considered toxic. Toxicity can lead to serious side effects like tremors, confusion, and renal dysfunction.
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