A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client's plan of care?

Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost.

High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter.

High risk for injury related to ambulation.

Knowledge deficit related to high-protein diet.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A: Uremic frost is a symptom of advanced kidney disease and can result in deposits of urea crystals on the skin. This can cause itching and discomfort, making it difficult for the client to maintain good hygiene and self-care. Therefore, addressing hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost is a priority in the plan of care for a client with renal osteodystrophy.

Choice B: This is not directly related to renal osteodystrophy and is more related to the presence of a catheter.

Choice C: This is not typically associated with renal osteodystrophy unless there are specific mobility issues related to bone problems.

Choice D: This may be relevant for clients with CKD, but it is not specific to renal osteodystrophy, which primarily involves bone mineral imbalances.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A: Withholding the antacid until the client gets indigestion is not appropriate because the primary purpose of aluminum hydroxide in CKD is to bind to phosphates in foods and reduce their absorption. It is not primarily used for indigestion.

Choice B: While CKD can lead to disturbances in gastric acid secretion, aluminum antacids are primarily used in CKD to control hyperphosphatemia by binding to phosphates in the gastrointestinal tract. Their role is not primarily related to gastric acid control.

Choice C: This response provides the most appropriate rationale. Aluminum antacids are often prescribed to CKD clients to prevent the absorption of dietary phosphates, which can contribute to hyperphosphatemia in CKD.

Choice D: Simply informing the healthcare provider that the client does not want to take the antacid is not the most informative response, as it does not address the rationale behind the medication use in CKD.

A. Obliterate the entry and Insert the correct Information. B. Draw one line through the entry and insert the correct information. C. Chart the correct Information in the next column. D. Notify the charge nurse that the entry needs to be revised.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A: Obliterating the entry and inserting the correct information may make the charting less clear and may not be considered a best practice in documentation.

Choice B: Drawing one line through the entry and inserting the correct information is a common method for correcting errors in paper documentation. It maintains clarity while indicating that an error was made and corrected.

Choice C: Charting the correct information in the next column may lead to confusion and does not clearly indicate that an error was made and corrected.

Choice D: Notifying the charge nurse that the entry needs to be revised may be necessary in some situations but is not the first step in correcting a charting error. The error should be corrected at the point of documentation.

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A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client's plan of care?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An adult male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel). He tells the nurse that since he does not have indigestion there is no need for him to take the antacid with his meals. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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