A 40-year-old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called:
adenomas
leiomyomas
endometriosis.
adenomyosis
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Adenomas are benign tumors that originate from glandular tissue, such as the endometrium, the inner lining of the uterus.
Choice B rationale: Leiomyomas, also known as fibroids, are benign tumors that arise from the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium, the middle layer of the uterine wall. They are the most common type of uterine tumors, affecting up to 80% of women by age 50. They can cause symptoms such as heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, pressure, and infertility.
Choice C rationale: Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing inflammation and pain.
Choice D rationale: Adenomyosis is a condition where endometrial tissue invades the myometrium, causing enlargement and distortion of the uterus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A/V fistula assessment is not concerning because a positive bruit and thrill indicate adequate blood flow through the fistula. A dry dressing with scant amount of blood is expected after hemodialysis.
Choice B rationale: The client's low blood pressure could indicate hypotension, which can be critical, especially after hemodialysis. It may contribute to the client's reported dizziness and fatigue.
Choice C rationale: The client’s pulse is irregular which may indicate cardiac arrhythmia. Choice D rationale: Anuria, the absence of urine output, is a significant concern. It could indicate kidney dysfunction or inadequate clearance of waste products, which may have implications following hemodialysis.
Choice E rationale: Oxygen saturation at 92% is relatively low. While the client is alert and oriented, a low oxygen saturation level may indicate potential respiratory compromise or inadequate oxygenation.
Choice F rationale: Temperature is not concerning because it is within normal range.
Choice G rationale: Neurological assessment is not concerning because the client is alert and oriented. The dizziness is likely related to the hypotension and will resolve once the blood pressure is stabilized.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Choice A rationale: A three-point gait is used when one leg is weaker or injured and cannot bear weight. The client should place the crutches about 12 inches in front of the feet and lean forward on the crutches. Then, the client should lift the injured leg and
swing the body forward between the crutches, landing on the uninjured leg. The client should not put any weight on the injured ankle, as ordered by the physician.
Choice B rationale: A four-point gait is used when both legs can bear some weight, but one is weaker than the other.
Choice C rationale: A swing-through gait is used when both legs can bear weight, but need assistance with balance and coordination.
Choice D rationale: A two-point gait is used when both legs have equal strength and can bear full weight.
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