A 40-year-old patient is admitted with sharp, pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse observes jugular venous distension and muffled heart sounds on examination. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action for this patient?
Encouraging the patient to take deep breaths and cough
Administering oxygen to maintain adequate oxygenation
Positioning the patient flat in bed to decrease discomfort
Providing the patient with a warm compress to relieve chest pain
Positive Tinel's sign
The Correct Answer is B
A. Encouraging the patient to take deep breaths and cough would not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which may indicate a more serious condition.
B. Administering oxygen to maintain adequate oxygenation is the most appropriate initial action, as the patient’s symptoms suggest a potentially life-threatening condition like a cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism.
C. Positioning the patient flat in bed is not recommended, as it may exacerbate breathing difficulties and
the patient’s distress.
D. A warm compress is unlikely to be beneficial in this acute situation and could delay appropriate intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
A. Loss of urine during laughing or sneezing is typically associated with stress incontinence, not overflow or functional incontinence.
B. Constant dribbling of urine despite frequent urination is a hallmark of overflow incontinence, often caused by an underactive bladder or obstruction.
C. Frequent urination at night with a strong urge is more characteristic of urge incontinence.
D. Sudden and intense urge to urinate followed by loss of urine is also indicative of urge incontinence.
E. Inability to access the toilet in time due to physical limitations, such as arthritis, is common in functional incontinence, where the person is unable to reach the bathroom in time despite normal bladder function.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Barrett's esophagus is a complication of GERD and is associated with an increased risk of esophageal cancer. It is essential for the patient to follow up with a GI specialist for surveillance.
B. Pancreatic cancer is not directly related to GERD, so the nurse should not suggest watching for symptoms of this condition.
C. Diabetes risk is not directly increased by GERD. Therefore, follow-up with an endocrinologist is unnecessary unless the patient has other risk factors for diabetes.
D. Liver issues are not typically associated with GERD, so monitoring for liver problems would not be a primary concern in this case.
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