A 45-year-old African-American client comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination. During the physical exam, the nurse notices areas of linear hyperpigmentation around the neck and in the axillae (Acanthosis Nigricans). What would the nurse do next?
Refer the client for medical follow-up.
Ask the client about a family history of cancer.
Document the benign findings.
Perform a random blood sugar test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice a reason :
Referring the client for medical follow-up is the most appropriate action. Acanthosis Nigricans is often associated with insulin resistance and is a risk factor for diabetes mellitus. The client's symptoms of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination are classic signs of diabetes. Therefore, a comprehensive medical evaluation is necessary to rule out diabetes or other underlying conditions that could be causing these symptoms.
Choice b reason
While Acanthosis Nigricans can sometimes be associated with malignancy, it is more commonly linked to insulin resistance and diabetes. The client's presenting symptoms are not typical of cancer but are indicative of diabetes. Therefore, while a family history of cancer is relevant to the client's overall health, it is not the immediate concern based on the current presentation.
Choice c reason
Documenting findings is an essential part of the nursing process; however, the presence of Acanthosis Nigricans, especially when coupled with symptoms of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination, should not be considered benign without further investigation. These findings warrant further assessment to determine the underlying cause.
Choice d reason
Performing a random blood sugar test could be a part of the initial assessment; however, it should not replace a referral for a comprehensive medical evaluation. A random blood sugar test alone may not be sufficient to diagnose diabetes or determine the cause of the client's symptoms. A full medical follow-up will likely include blood sugar testing along with other diagnostic tests.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is d) Stage II.
Choice a reason:
Stage IV pressure ulcers are the most severe, with full-thickness skin loss and exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Signs of stage IV include large-scale tissue loss, possibly including slough or eschar, and may include undermining and tunneling. The scenario described does not indicate such an advanced stage, as there is no mention of exposed deeper tissues or structures.
Choice b reason:
Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss, potentially affecting subcutaneous tissue but not extending to underlying muscle or bone. The wound may have a crater-like appearance. The described condition does not match stage III, as there is no indication of the ulcer extending into subcutaneous tissue.
Choice c reason:
Stage I pressure ulcers present with intact skin and non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. The skin may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler compared to adjacent tissue. In the given scenario, the skin is not intact, ruling out stage I.
Choice d reason:
Stage II pressure ulcers are characterized by partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. They may also present as intact or ruptured blisters. The description of the skin condition with erythema, serosanguineous drainage, and a blister-like appearance aligns with a stage II pressure ulcer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a reason:
The oral mucosa is the most reliable area to evaluate for central cyanosis in a client with asthma. Central cyanosis reflects a decrease in arterial oxygenation and is best assessed where the blood flow is high and the skin is thin, which is the case with the oral mucosa. It is less likely to be affected by peripheral factors such as temperature and is therefore a more accurate indicator of oxygen saturation in the central circulation.
Choice b reason:
While ear lobes can show signs of cyanosis, they are not the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis because they are more prone to peripheral cyanosis. Peripheral cyanosis can occur in the ear lobes due to local vasoconstriction or decreased blood flow, which may not reflect central oxygenation levels.
Choice c reason:
The soles of the feet are not a reliable indicator of central cyanosis, especially in a client with asthma. The skin on the soles is thicker and has less blood flow compared to the oral mucosa, making it a poor site for assessing central cyanosis. Additionally, the soles can be affected by peripheral factors like pressure and temperature.
Choice d reason:
Conjunctivae are not the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis. While they can show signs of cyanosis, the assessment can be affected by environmental factors and the presence of blood vessels in the conjunctiva that may not accurately reflect central oxygenation levels.
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