A 45-year-old client with dark skin tone comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination. During the examination, the nurse notices areas of hyperpigmentation around the neck and in the axillae. What is the priority intervention by the nurse?

Refer the client for medical follow-up in two weeks.

Document the benign findings.

Perform a random blood sugar test per order.

Ask the client about a family history of cancer.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Delaying follow-up for two weeks is inappropriate when symptoms suggest a possible serious metabolic disorder, such as diabetes. Immediate testing is needed.
B. Simply documenting the findings as benign is incorrect because hyperpigmentation in these areas (acanthosis nigricans) can be a sign of insulin resistance, which requires further evaluation.
C. Performing a random blood sugar test per order is correct. The symptoms of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination, along with acanthosis nigricans, strongly suggest diabetes mellitus or insulin resistance. A random blood glucose test can help determine if the client has hyperglycemia.
D. While certain malignancies can be associated with acanthosis nigricans, diabetes is a more common cause. Asking about cancer history is not the priority intervention.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Systemic infection can cause fever, but older adults often present with atypical signs, including a lack of fever, rather than the classic response.
B. The presence of a productive cough, abnormal breath sounds, and shortness of breath suggests a respiratory infection rather than a cardiac issue.
C. While older adults may be more susceptible to hypothermia, the client’s symptoms align with infection rather than hypothermia.
D. "The client's normothermic temperature does not rule out the presence of an infection" is correct because older adults may have a blunted febrile response to infection due to age-related changes in thermoregulation. An absence of fever does not exclude infection in elderly patients.

A. A 3-year-old child with fever, rash, and sore throat. B. A 45-year-old man with chest pain and diaphoresis for 1 hour. C. A 14-year-old girl who is crying because she thinks she is pregnant. D. A 20-year-old man with a 3-inch shallow laceration on his leg.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A 3-year-old with fever, rash, and sore throat should be evaluated promptly, but these symptoms do not necessarily indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency.
B. A 45-year-old man with chest pain and diaphoresis for 1 hour is the priority because these are classic symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or myocardial infarction (MI). Immediate emergency assessment and intervention are required.
C. A 14-year-old girl crying about a possible pregnancy needs emotional support and counseling but does not require immediate emergency intervention.
D. A 20-year-old man with a 3-inch shallow laceration on his leg needs wound care, but his condition is not life-threatening and does not require emergency assessment.

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A 45-year-old client with dark skin tone comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination. During the examination, the nurse notices areas of hyperpigmentation around the neck and in the axillae. What is the priority intervention by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is working in an ambulatory care clinic that is located in a busy, inner-city neighborhood. Which client would the nurse determine to be in most need of an emergency assessment?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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