A 45-year-old client with dark skin tone comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination. During the examination, the nurse notices areas of hyperpigmentation around the neck and in the axillae. What is the priority intervention by the nurse?

Refer the client for medical follow-up in two weeks.

Document the benign findings.

Perform a random blood sugar test per order.

Ask the client about a family history of cancer.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Delaying follow-up for two weeks is inappropriate when symptoms suggest a possible serious metabolic disorder, such as diabetes. Immediate testing is needed.
B. Simply documenting the findings as benign is incorrect because hyperpigmentation in these areas (acanthosis nigricans) can be a sign of insulin resistance, which requires further evaluation.
C. Performing a random blood sugar test per order is correct. The symptoms of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination, along with acanthosis nigricans, strongly suggest diabetes mellitus or insulin resistance. A random blood glucose test can help determine if the client has hyperglycemia.
D. While certain malignancies can be associated with acanthosis nigricans, diabetes is a more common cause. Asking about cancer history is not the priority intervention.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. This is incorrect because it describes an actual nursing diagnosis, not a risk diagnosis.
B. A risk diagnosis describes a situation in which a problem will likely occur if the nurse does not intervene. It identifies a potential health problem that has not yet developed but could occur due to the client’s risk factors.
C. This is incorrect because it describes a health promotion diagnosis, which focuses on enhancing well-being rather than preventing a problem.
D. This is incorrect because it describes a syndrome diagnosis, which is a group of related nursing diagnoses that occur together.

A. Client is experiencing a fluid deficit. B. Adventitious sounds are present. C. Hyperinflation of the lungs. D. Client has a pectus carinatum.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A fluid deficit may cause tachycardia and hypotension, but it does not directly cause diminished lung sounds.
B. Adventitious sounds (wheezes, crackles, rhonchi, etc.) are absent in this case. Diminished breath sounds suggest poor airflow, not abnormal sounds.
C. Hyperinflation of the lungs is correct. In conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or emphysema, lung expansion is limited, leading to diminished breath sounds in all lung fields due to air trapping. The oxygen saturation of 92% is consistent with chronic lung disease.
D. Pectus carinatum (protrusion of the sternum) is a congenital deformity that does not cause diminished breath sounds.

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A 45-year-old client with dark skin tone comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination. During the examination, the nurse notices areas of hyperpigmentation around the neck and in the axillae. What is the priority intervention by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nursing student correctly describes a risk diagnosis by which of the following statements?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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