A 45-year-old male patient present to the emergency department with a severe head injury following a car accident. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 8, and he shows signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should be prioritized to manage his ICP?

Administering mannitol intravenously

Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate

Administering a high-dose corticosteroid

Performing a lumbar puncture immediately

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.

B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.

C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.

D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Warfarin. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, but it typically requires several days to achieve a therapeutic effect and needs close monitoring of INR (International Normalized Ratio) levels. While it can be used for long-term prevention of DVT, it's not the immediate choice for post-operative prophylaxis.

B. Alteplase (tPA). Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent, used to break down existing clots, not prevent their formation. It is typically used in emergency situations, such as for treating ischemic stroke.

C. Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent, often used to prevent arterial clots, not DVTs. It is more commonly used in conditions like stroke and heart disease.

D. Enoxaparin. Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin, is commonly used to prevent DVT after surgery by inhibiting specific clotting factors. It’s frequently prescribed for DVT prevention in orthopedic surgery patients.

A. Loss of pain temperature, and light touch sensation on the same side as the injury B. Loss of motor function and deep pressure sensation on the opposite side of the injury C. Loss of motor function and position sense on the same side as the injury D. Loss of motor function with preserved pain and temperature sensation in the lower extremities

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Loss of pain, temperature, and light touch sensation on the same side as the injury. In Brown-Sequard syndrome, pain, temperature, and light touch are typically lost on the opposite (contralateral) side of the injury.

B. Loss of motor function and deep pressure sensation on the opposite side of the injury. Motor function and deep pressure sensation loss occur on the same side (ipsilateral) as the injury.

C. Loss of motor function and position sense on the same side as the injury. Brown-Sequard syndrome is a spinal cord hemisection injury leading to loss of motor function and proprioception on the same side as the injury.

D. Loss of motor function with preserved pain and temperature sensation in the lower extremities. Pain and temperature sensations are lost on the opposite side of the injury in Brown-Sequard syndrome, not preserved.

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A 45-year-old male patient present to the emergency department with a severe head injury following a car accident. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 8, and he shows signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should be prioritized to manage his ICP?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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