A 45-year-old male patient present to the emergency department with a severe head injury following a car accident. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 8, and he shows signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should be prioritized to manage his ICP?
Administering mannitol intravenously
Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate
Administering a high-dose corticosteroid
Performing a lumbar puncture immediately
The Correct Answer is A
A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.
B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.
C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.
D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis generally presents with redness and discharge but does not cause elevated intraocular pressure, severe pain, or visual disturbances like halos.
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, nausea, and vomiting, along with elevated intraocular pressure and a cloudy cornea.
C. Retinal detachment. Retinal detachment may cause sudden vision loss or flashing lights but typically lacks pain, nausea, or vomiting, and does not affect intraocular pressure.
D. Migraine with aura. A migraine with aura may cause visual disturbances but does not present with eye pain, red eye, or elevated intraocular pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Mild wheezing: Mild wheezing can be a common symptom in COPD and does not immediately indicate a severe complication unless it worsens suddenly.
B. Fatigue and general malaise: Fatigue and malaise are often chronic in COPD and do not necessarily indicate an acute complication.
C. Increased sputum production: While increased sputum could suggest an infection, it is not the most urgent sign of a severe complication.
D. Sudden onset chest pain and dyspnea: Sudden chest pain and dyspnea are concerning for a pneumothorax or pulmonary embolism, both of which are potential complications in COPD and require immediate attention.
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