A 45-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with excessive thirst, frequent urination, and signs of dehydration. His laboratory results show low urine osmolality and high serum sodium levels. Based on this case scenario, which of the following management strategies would be appropriate for this patient? (Select All that Apply.)
Administer diuretics to increase urine output
Administer desmopressin
Administer intravenous hypotonic saline
Restrict fluid intake to reduce urine output
Administer hypertonic saline
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A Reason:
Administering diuretics to increase urine output is not appropriate in this scenario. Diuretics would exacerbate dehydration and further increase serum sodium levels by promoting additional water loss. This approach would worsen the patient’s condition rather than improve it.
Choice B Reason:
Administering desmopressin is a suitable intervention for this patient. Desmopressin is a synthetic analog of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) and is used to treat conditions like diabetes insipidus, which can cause symptoms such as excessive thirst, frequent urination, and dehydration. Desmopressin helps to reduce urine output and correct the imbalance of fluids and electrolytes.
Choice C Reason:
Administering intravenous hypotonic saline is appropriate for managing high serum sodium levels and dehydration. Hypotonic saline helps to lower serum sodium levels by diluting the blood and rehydrating the patient. This intervention addresses both the dehydration and the electrolyte imbalance effectively.
Choice D Reason:
Restricting fluid intake to reduce urine output is not appropriate in this case. Fluid restriction would worsen dehydration and could lead to further complications. The patient needs adequate fluid replacement to correct the dehydration and normalize serum sodium levels.
Choice E Reason:
Administering hypertonic saline is not suitable for this patient. Hypertonic saline would increase serum sodium levels further, exacerbating the hypernatremia. This intervention would be counterproductive and could lead to severe complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Methimazole is an antithyroid medication that inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones. It is commonly used to manage hyperthyroidism, especially in patients who are not candidates for radioactive iodine therapy or surgery. Methimazole is effective in reducing thyroid hormone levels and controlling symptoms, but it requires long-term use and regular monitoring of thyroid function tests.
Choice B Reason:
Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroxine (T4) used to treat hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Administering levothyroxine to a patient with hyperthyroidism would exacerbate the condition by increasing thyroid hormone levels. Therefore, it is not an appropriate treatment for managing hyperthyroidism.
Choice C Reason:
Radioactive iodine is a widely used treatment for hyperthyroidism. It works by destroying overactive thyroid cells, thereby reducing the production of thyroid hormones. This treatment is particularly effective for patients with Graves’ disease, toxic multinodular goiter, or toxic adenoma. Radioactive iodine is a definitive treatment that can lead to a permanent resolution of hyperthyroidism, although it may result in hypothyroidism, which can be managed with levothyroxine.
Choice D Reason:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage the symptoms of hyperthyroidism, such as palpitations, tremors, and anxiety. While it is useful for symptomatic relief, it does not address the underlying cause of hyperthyroidism. Propranolol is often used in conjunction with other treatments, such as antithyroid medications or radioactive iodine, to provide immediate symptom control.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. While it can cause symptoms such as fatigue and fever, it is less likely to cause severe pain in the lower back and joints, which are more characteristic of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia. ALL typically presents with symptoms like frequent infections, easy bruising or bleeding, and bone pain, but the combination of severe pain, fatigue, and fever in a patient with sickle cell anemia points more towards a vaso-occlusive crisis.
Choice B Reason:
Iron-deficiency anemia is a condition where there is a lack of adequate iron to form healthy red blood cells. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, and pale skin, but it does not typically cause severe pain in the lower back and joints or fever. The presence of severe pain and fever in a patient with sickle cell anemia is more indicative of a vaso-occlusive crisis rather than iron-deficiency anemia.
Choice C Reason:
Vaso-occlusive crisis is a common and painful complication of sickle cell anemia. It occurs when sickled red blood cells block blood flow to parts of the body, causing severe pain, often in the back, joints, and abdomen. This condition can also lead to fever and fatigue due to the body’s inflammatory response and the reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Given the patient’s history of sickle cell anemia and the described symptoms, a vaso-occlusive crisis is the most likely cause.
Choice D Reason:
Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, which can cause symptoms such as fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. While pneumonia can occur in patients with sickle cell anemia, it is less likely to cause severe pain in the lower back and joints. The combination of severe pain, fatigue, and fever in this patient is more consistent with a vaso-occlusive crisis.
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