A 49-year-old man who has type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and gastroesophageal reflux tells the nurse that he has had recent difficulty in achieving an erection.
Which of the following drugs from his current medications list may cause erectile dysfunction (ED)?
Propranolol (Inderal)
Ranitidine (Zantac)
Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
Metformin (Glucophage)
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Propranolol, a beta-blocker used for high blood pressure and other cardiovascular conditions, is known to have potential side effects of sexual dysfunction, including erectile dysfunction (ED).
Choice B rationale: Ranitidine (Zantac) is an H2 blocker used for acid reflux and isn't typically associated with causing ED.
Choice C rationale: Atorvastatin (Lipitor), a statin used for high cholesterol, isn't commonly associated with causing ED.
Choice D rationale: Metformin (Glucophage), used for type 2 diabetes, is not typically linked to causing ED.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Cri du chat syndrome involves a high-pitched cry in infants and other distinct physical and developmental features, but it doesn't present with the described symptoms.
Choice B rationale: Klinefelter syndrome, characterized by an extra X chromosome (XXY) in males, typically presents with small testicles, gynecomastia (enlarged breast tissues), sexual dysfunction, and altered body proportions, such as long legs and a shorter trunk, aligning with the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale: Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) manifests with severe developmental issues, facial abnormalities, and other physical malformations, but the described symptoms are not typically associated with this syndrome.
Choice D rationale: Turner syndrome involves females with a missing or partially missing X chromosome (45, X), resulting in specific physical features and medical problems not consistent with the described symptoms in a male client.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Rotating the neck to one side while observing the eyes moving to the opposite side is a procedure for testing for oculocephalic reflex or doll's eye
phenomenon, which indicates brainstem function.
Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Kernig's sign is a clinical sign that indicates meningitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. To test for Kernig's sign, the nurse should flex the patient's hip to 90 degrees and then attempt to extend the knee. A positive Kernig's sign is when the patient
experiences pain in the lower back or hamstring, resists knee extension, or involuntarily flexes the opposite leg.
Choice C rationale: Stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the patient's foot and observing for dorsiflexion of the big toe is a procedure for testing for Babinski's sign, which indicates upper motor neuron lesion or damage.
Choice D rationale: Passively flexing the patient's neck forward and observing for hip and knee flexion is a procedure for testing for Brudzinski's sign, which also indicates meningitis.
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