A 6-year-old child has been sent to the school nurse for wetting her pants three times in the past 2 days. The nurse should recommend that this child be evaluated for which complication first?

Urinary tract infection.

Emotional trauma.

Sexual abuse.

Structural defect of the urinary tract.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: This is the correct choice. A urinary tract infection is a common cause of urinary incontinence in children and should be evaluated first.
Choice B reason: While emotional trauma can cause changes in behavior, including incontinence, it is not the first complication to be evaluated in this scenario.
Choice C reason: Sexual abuse can result in behavioral changes, but there is no immediate indication of this being the cause without further assessment.
Choice D reason: A structural defect of the urinary tract could cause incontinence, but it is less likely to be the cause of a sudden onset of symptoms compared to a urinary tract infection.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Applying a warm, moist pack is not the most appropriate action as it may increase swelling and does not address the underlying cause of the edema.

Choice B reason: While it is important to report significant changes to the healthcare provider, mild edema post-surgery can be expected and managed with elevation.

Choice C reason: Elevating the legs on pillows can help reduce edema by promoting venous return and decreasing swelling.

Choice D reason: Encouraging movement of the toes is beneficial for circulation and preventing stiffness, but it is not the primary intervention for edema. Elevation is more effective in this scenario.

A. Infrequent diaper changes B. Impetigo (staph) C. Candida albicans (yeast) D. Urine and feces

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Infrequent diaper changes can contribute to diaper rash, but the presence of satellite lesions suggests a yeast infection rather than a simple irritant rash.

Choice B reason: Impetigo, caused by staphylococcal or streptococcal bacteria, typically presents with honey-colored crusts and is not usually associated with satellite lesions.

Choice C reason: The description of bright red scaly plaques and satellite lesions is characteristic of a yeast infection, specifically caused by Candida albicans.

Choice D reason: While urine and feces can irritate the skin and cause diaper rash, the specific clinical findings mentioned point more towards a yeast infection.

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A 6-year-old child has been sent to the school nurse for wetting her pants three times in the past 2 days. The nurse should recommend that this child be evaluated for which complication first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

After surgery for the correction of bilateral congenital clubfeet, an infant returns with bilateral long-leg casts. The toes on both feet are edematous, yet there is color, sensitivity, and movement. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

What is the most likely cause of a 12-month-old's persistent diaper rash, characterized by perianal inflammation with bright red scaly plaques, small papules, and satellite lesions?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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