A 67-year-old male client is admitted to a health care facility with abdominal pain and suspected abdominal aneurysm. The client relates a 10-year history of high blood pressure and history of arterial insufficiency diagnosed 7 years ago. Following auscultation of the abdomen for bowel sounds, what other assessment should the nurse perform at this time?
Observe for evidence of increased abdominal girth.
Palpate the abdomen for masses, pulsations.
Auscultate for a friction rub.
Listen with the bell of the stethoscope for vascular sounds.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Observing for increased abdominal girth is important for conditions such as ascites but is not the priority assessment for a suspected abdominal aneurysm.
B. Palpating the abdomen for masses or pulsations is contraindicated in suspected abdominal aneurysms, as it may cause rupture.
C. Auscultating for a friction rub is used for liver or spleen inflammation and is not relevant in this case.
D. Listening with the bell of the stethoscope for vascular sounds is correct because an abdominal aneurysm may produce a bruit, which can be heard over the affected artery. This assessment helps confirm the presence of turbulent blood flow, a key sign of an aneurysm.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Having the client cough, then listening again is correct. Sometimes wheezing can be due to mucus or secretions in the airways, and coughing can help clear them. If wheezing persists, further assessment and interventions may be needed.
B. Teaching pursed-lip breathing is beneficial for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients but is not the first action in an acute assessment.
C. Checking O₂ saturation and applying O₂ is important but not the first step. Oxygen therapy is not indicated unless there is evidence of hypoxia.
D. Administering a nebulizer treatment should only be done if wheezing persists and is causing respiratory distress, but the nurse should first confirm that the wheezing is not due to mucus plugging, which may resolve with coughing.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A 3-year-old with fever, rash, and sore throat should be evaluated promptly, but these symptoms do not necessarily indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency.
B. A 45-year-old man with chest pain and diaphoresis for 1 hour is the priority because these are classic symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or myocardial infarction (MI). Immediate emergency assessment and intervention are required.
C. A 14-year-old girl crying about a possible pregnancy needs emotional support and counseling but does not require immediate emergency intervention.
D. A 20-year-old man with a 3-inch shallow laceration on his leg needs wound care, but his condition is not life-threatening and does not require emergency assessment.
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