A 68-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the acute care facility for reports of abdominal pain. Based on your understanding of alcohol withdrawal, the nurse knows that if patient is currently abusing alcohol, he will most likely.

develop withdrawal symptoms 48 to 72 hours after the last intake of alcohol

be prescribed oxazepam (Serax)

experience delirium tremors within 4 hours of hospitalization

receive 1 ounce of alcohol every 4 hours while awake

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically begin within 6 to 24 hours after the last drink, with peak symptoms usually occurring between 48 and 72 hours. Delirium tremens (DTs), a severe form of withdrawal, usually develops within this timeframe if not managed properly.
B.   This choice is partially correct but less specific. Oxazepam (Serax) is a benzodiazepine that can be prescribed to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, especially in patients with liver impairment, as it is metabolized differently from other benzodiazepines. However, it is not the only medication used; lorazepam (Ativan) and diazepam (Valium) are also commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms.

C.   This choice is less likely to be correct. Delirium tremens (DTs) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal characterized by confusion, agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. DTs typically develop between 48 and 72 hours after the last drink, not within 4 hours. Symptoms that occur within 4 hours of hospitalization are more likely to be early withdrawal symptoms rather than DTs.
D.   This choice is not a standard treatment for alcohol withdrawal. While some facilities might use a tapering protocol to gradually reduce alcohol intake, in most cases, the goal is to manage withdrawal symptoms using medications rather than providing alcohol. The use of medication such as benzodiazepines is preferred to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Giving alcohol is not a standard or recommended approach for managing withdrawal in acute care settings.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Culture encompasses a broad range of shared beliefs, behaviors, and expectations that shape the way individuals and groups interact with each other and their environment. It includes aspects such as language, religion, customs, traditions, values, and social norms.
B. While geography can play a role in shaping culture, it is not the sole determinant. People from the same region may have different cultural backgrounds and beliefs.
C. While morality is an important aspect of culture, it is not the only one. Culture also includes shared beliefs about beauty, art, music, and other aspects of life.
D. Culture is not defined by physical appearance. People from different cultural backgrounds can look similar, while people from the same cultural background can look quite different.

A. reflex tone B. body for bruising C. serum creatinine level D. prothrombin time

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Reflex tone refers to the neurological response of the body to stimuli and is not directly related to the action or monitoring of anticoagulant therapy. While assessing reflexes might be important for overall patient health, it is not specifically relevant to monitoring the effects of warfarin. Reflex tone does not provide information on the anticoagulation status or risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.
B. Checking the body for bruising helps assess the safety of warfarin therapy and may indicate the need for dosage adjustments or further investigation if bruising is excessive. However, while monitoring for bruising is essential, it is not the primary method for assessing the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy.
C. While monitoring kidney function is relevant for overall medication management, it is not the primary focus for directly assessing the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy. Kidney function is more related to adjusting doses and avoiding potential complications.
D. Regularly reviewing PT is crucial for managing warfarin therapy because it directly reflects the anticoagulation effect of the medication. The International Normalized Ratio (INR), derived from PT, is used to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for effective anticoagulation while minimizing the risk of bleeding.

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A 68-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the acute care facility for reports of abdominal pain. Based on your understanding of alcohol withdrawal, the nurse knows that if patient is currently abusing alcohol, he will most likely.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The student learns that which of the following is the best definition of culture?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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