A 73-year-old patient has increased pulmonary pressure resulting in right heart failure. What could be a potential cause for the right heart to fail?
Left heart failure.
Pericarditis.
Hypertension.
Acute pneumonia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Left heart failure is a common cause of right heart failure. When the left side of the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, it can cause increased pressure in the lungs, which can then lead to right heart failure.
Choice B rationale
Pericarditis, an inflammation of the sac-like covering around the heart, is not typically a direct cause of right heart failure.
Choice C rationale
While hypertension, or high blood pressure, can contribute to heart failure, it typically affects the left side of the heart more than the right.
Choice D rationale
Acute pneumonia, an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, is not typically a direct cause of right heart failure.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to treat hypertension, angina, and certain heart arrhythmias. They work by relaxing the muscles of your heart and blood vessels. While they can affect heart rate and blood pressure, they would not typically have immediate implications for a patient presenting with intermittent chest pain.
Choice B rationale
Phosphodiesterase 5 enzyme inhibitors, such as sildenafil (Viagra), are used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. These medications can interact with nitroglycerin, a common medication used to treat chest pain, to cause a severe and life-threatening drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it’s crucial to know if a patient is taking this type of medication when they present with chest pain.
Choice C rationale
Anticoagulants are used to prevent blood clots. If a patient is taking an anticoagulant, it could affect their clotting times and could be important if the patient needs surgery or if the cause of their chest pain is a clot. However, this would not typically have immediate implications for the treatment of chest pain.
Choice D rationale
Loop diuretics are strong diuretics that are used to treat edema and hypertension. They work by preventing your body from absorbing too much salt, allowing the salt to instead be passed in your urine. While important to know for overall patient care, they would not typically have immediate implications for a patient presenting with chest pain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a hole in the wall separating the two lower chambers of the heart. While it can cause cyanosis, it would not typically cause cyanosis only during crying or after feeding.
Choice B rationale
An Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect is a combination of heart problems resulting in a defect in the center of the heart. While it can cause cyanosis, it would not typically cause cyanosis only during crying or after feeding.
Choice C rationale
Tetralogy of Fallot is a rare condition caused by a combination of four heart defects that are present at birth. These defects, which affect the structure of the heart, cause oxygen-poor blood to flow out of the heart and into the rest of the body. Infants and children with Tetralogy of Fallot usually have blue-tinged skin because their blood doesn’t carry enough oxygen. This is often more noticeable during episodes of crying or feeding.
Choice D rationale
An Atrial septal defect (ASD) is a hole in the wall between the two upper chambers of your heart (atria). The condition is present at birth (congenital). Small defects might be found by chance and never cause a problem. Some small atrial septal defects close during infancy or early childhood. While it can cause cyanosis, it would not typically cause cyanosis only during crying or after feeding.

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