A 7-year-old child with asthma uses a daily inhaled glucocorticoid and an albuterol MDI as needed. The provider has added montelukast (Singulair) to the child’s regimen. Which statement by the child’s parent indicates understanding of this medication?
I should notify my child’s pediatrician if I notice mood changes in my child.
I will give this medication to my child if I hear them wheezing.
This medication can cure my child’s asthma.
I should give this medication twice daily.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Montelukast can cause mood changes or neuropsychiatric effects in children. Recognizing this side effect and notifying the pediatrician shows understanding, making this the correct statement.
Choice B reason: Montelukast is a daily maintenance drug, not for acute wheezing, which requires albuterol. This misunderstanding of its use makes it incorrect for proper administration.
Choice C reason: Montelukast controls asthma symptoms but does not cure asthma, a chronic condition. This incorrect belief about its purpose makes it wrong for understanding the medication.
Choice D reason: Montelukast is dosed once daily, typically at bedtime, not twice daily. This dosing error indicates a lack of understanding, making it incorrect for the parent’s statement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Taking antihistamines only with symptoms may reduce side effects but provides inconsistent relief, as histamine levels fluctuate. Daily use during allergy seasons prevents symptom onset, offering better control, especially for second-generation antihistamines with longer action, making this choice less effective.
Choice B reason: First-generation antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) are sedating and have more side effects than second-generation (e.g., loratadine), which are equally effective for allergies but less sedating. Claiming first-generation are more effective is incorrect, as second-generation are preferred, making this choice inaccurate.
Choice C reason: Anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth) are more common with first-generation antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) due to non-selective receptor binding. Second-generation antihistamines (e.g., cetirizine) are more selective for H1 receptors, reducing these effects, making this choice incorrect and opposite to pharmacological profiles.
Choice D reason: Daily oral antihistamines, especially second-generation (e.g., loratadine), during allergy seasons maintain steady histamine receptor blockade, preventing symptoms like sneezing and itching. This maximizes efficacy and improves quality of life, aligning with guidelines for seasonal allergies, making this the correct nurse response.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptors, not specific ones, leading to widespread effects. Specific processes are targeted by selective agonists, so this is incorrect for nonselective drugs.
Choice B reason: Nonselective agonists activate, not prevent, receptors. Prevention is the role of antagonists, so this is incorrect for a nonselective agonist’s mechanism of action.
Choice C reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptor types, affecting many physiologic processes (e.g., epinephrine). This broad action is their hallmark, making it the correct choice for the drug’s effect.
Choice D reason: Preventing receptor activation describes antagonists, not agonists. Nonselective agonists stimulate multiple processes, so this is incorrect for the drug’s pharmacological action.
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