A client arrives on the cardiac unit from the emergency room with a diagnosis of heart failure exacerbation. The nurse receives the client who is acutely short of breath with respiratory rate of 40, pulse oximetry 85%, blood pressure 150/90, and lower extremity swelling. What intervention or action should the nurse take first?

Ensure the client is sitting in an upright position.

Call the respiratory therapist in anticipation of intubating the client.

Prepare to place a Foley catheter in anticipation of giving Lasix.

Apply oxygen.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Sitting upright improves breathing but doesn’t address the critical hypoxia indicated by 85% pulse oximetry. Applying oxygen directly corrects low oxygen levels, making this secondary and incorrect compared to the nurse’s priority of ensuring adequate oxygenation in a heart failure exacerbation.

Choice B reason: Calling for intubation anticipates worsening but is premature without first addressing hypoxia with oxygen. Applying oxygen is the immediate need, making this incorrect, as it bypasses the initial step of improving oxygenation in the client with severe respiratory distress.

Choice C reason: Preparing for a Foley catheter anticipates diuresis but doesn’t address the urgent hypoxia at 85% oxygen saturation. Applying oxygen is critical, making this incorrect, as it delays the primary intervention needed to stabilize the client’s respiratory status in heart failure.

Choice D reason: Applying oxygen is the first action to correct hypoxia (pulse oximetry 85%), improving tissue oxygenation in heart failure exacerbation. This aligns with acute care priorities, making it the correct intervention to address the client’s immediate respiratory distress and low oxygen saturation effectively.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Monitoring is important but doesn’t address the urgency of headache, nausea, and restlessness, suggesting disequilibrium syndrome. Notifying the provider is critical, making this incorrect, as it delays the nurse’s priority action to manage a serious post-dialysis complication.

Choice B reason: Elevating the head of the bed may help comfort but doesn’t treat potential disequilibrium syndrome indicated by headache and restlessness. Notifying the provider is urgent, making this incorrect, as it’s less critical than the nurse’s need to report symptoms.

Choice C reason: Assessing the fistula site is routine but unrelated to headache and nausea, which suggest a neurological issue. Notifying the provider takes precedence, making this incorrect, as it’s not the priority compared to addressing potential post-dialysis complications.

Choice D reason: Notifying the provider is the priority for headache, nausea, and restlessness post-hemodialysis, as these suggest disequilibrium syndrome, a serious complication. This aligns with dialysis care protocols, making it the correct action for the nurse to take immediately.

A. Provide two manual breaths with a bag and mask. B. Assess the client’s pulse. C. Immediately resume chest compressions. D. Administer 1 mL of IV epinephrine.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Providing breaths follows compressions in ACLS after defibrillation for pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Resuming compressions is immediate, making this incorrect, as it delays the nurse’s priority to restore circulation post-shock in the client’s code situation.

Choice B reason: Assessing the pulse occurs after 2 minutes of compressions, not immediately post-defibrillation. Resuming compressions is the priority, making this incorrect, as it’s premature compared to the nurse’s focus on continuing CPR in pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

Choice C reason: Resuming chest compressions immediately after defibrillation maintains circulation in pulseless ventricular tachycardia per ACLS guidelines. This aligns with code management, making it the correct next step for the nurse to perform to optimize the client’s resuscitation efforts.

Choice D reason: Epinephrine is given after the second shock or per protocol, not immediately post-defibrillation. Compressions are the priority, making this incorrect, as it’s not the next step in the nurse’s ACLS sequence for managing the client’s arrhythmia.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with chronic kidney disease being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious, and the nurse suspects air embolism. What are the priority nursing actions? (Select all that apply)

A client with peripheral artery disease is suffering from ineffective tissue perfusion. Which of the following would be appropriate outcomes for this nursing diagnosis? (Select all that apply)

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse would plan which actions as a priority? (Select all that apply)

In collaboration with the registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN), which foods will the nurse teach a client who is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic to avoid or use cautiously? (Select all that apply)

A client is actively bleeding from esophageal varices. Which medication would the nurse most expect to be administered to this client?

During transport to the operating room for mitral valve replacement, a patient with a signed consent form says that she does not want to go through with the surgery and asks to be returned to her room. What is the best response from the nurse?

Which client electrocardiography (ECG) change from baseline will alert the nurse to possible development of hypercalcemia?