A client at 10 weeks gestation provides the following obstetric history to the nurse at the first prenatal visit: elective abortion at age 17, a 5-year-old daughter born at 40 weeks gestation, and 3-year-old twin boys born at 34 weeks gestation.
Using GTPAL notation, which documentation appropriately describes the client's obstetric history?
G3, T1, P2, A1, L3.
G4, T1, P2, A1, L3.
G3, T1, P1, A1, L3.
G4, T1, P1, A1, L3.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
This notation indicates three pregnancies (G3), one term birth (T1), two preterm births (P2), one abortion (A1), and three living children (L3). While the number of living children is correct, the total number of pregnancies is underestimated by excluding the current pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
This notation accurately reflects four pregnancies (G4: the elective abortion, the daughter, the twins, and the current pregnancy), one term birth (T1: the daughter born at 40 weeks), two preterm births (P2: the twin boys born at 34 weeks), one abortion (A1: the elective abortion), and three living children (L3: the daughter and the twin boys).
Choice C rationale
This notation indicates three pregnancies (G3), one term birth (T1), one preterm birth (P1), one abortion (A1), and three living children (L3). The number of preterm births is incorrect, as there were two preterm births (the twins).
Choice D rationale
This notation indicates four pregnancies (G4), one term birth (T1), one preterm birth (P1), one abortion (A1), and three living children (L3). The number of preterm births is incorrect, as there were two preterm births (the twins).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Accumulation of flatulence can cause abdominal discomfort after a cesarean birth, but it does not directly stimulate uterine contractions leading to afterpains. Afterpains are specifically related to the involution of the uterus, not gastrointestinal motility.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding stimulates the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is a powerful uterotonic hormone that causes the uterus to contract to its pre-pregnant size. These contractions are experienced as afterpains, especially in multiparous women whose uterine muscles may have less tone.
Choice C rationale
While some medications administered after birth can have side effects, severe cramps or afterpains are primarily a physiological response to uterine involution and the hormonal changes associated with breastfeeding, rather than a direct adverse effect of medication.
Choice D rationale
Healing of the abdominal incision after a C-section causes incisional pain, which is distinct from the cramping sensation of afterpains. Afterpains are specifically due to uterine contractions, not the healing process of the abdominal wall.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Condition
Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension (≥140/90 mm Hg) and proteinuria (≥300 mg/24 hr) or signs of systemic involvement such as headache and edema. The client’s elevated BP, significant proteinuria, headache, hyperreflexia, and pitting edema strongly indicate preeclampsia. The absence of seizures rules out eclampsia, and the gestational age excludes chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures by stabilizing neuronal excitability and reducing cerebral vasospasm. It also lowers BP by promoting vascular relaxation. External fetal monitoring detects fetal distress from utero-placental insufficiency caused by preeclampsia-related hypertension and endothelial dysfunction.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Blood pressure reflects disease progression and response to antihypertensives. Severe hypertension increases the risk of cerebral hemorrhage and placental abruption. Deep tendon reflexes indicate neurological impairment. Hyperreflexia signals worsening preeclampsia, while absent reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria and systemic symptoms. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia requires a pre-existing hypertensive diagnosis. Eclampsia involves seizures, which the client has not reported.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
Ampicillin is not indicated without infection. Rh immune globulin is unnecessary without Rh incompatibility. Anticoagulants are not first-line for preeclampsia.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Temperature is not directly related to preeclampsia. Petechiae are signs of coagulopathy, not primary indicators. Pruritus is irrelevant unless liver dysfunction is suspected.
Take-Home Points
- Preeclampsia involves multisystem dysfunction with endothelial damage.
- Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures but must be monitored for toxicity.
- Differentiation from gestational hypertension is crucial for management.
- Fetal monitoring is key to detecting early signs of compromise.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.