A client diagnosed with an Anxiety Disorder tells a nurse that being in crowds creates thoughts of losing control and the need to suddenly leave. What should the nurse recommend as an effective, non-pharmacological therapy for managing the client’s symptoms of anxiety?
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
Psychoanalytic therapy
Electroconvulsive (ECT) therapy
Family systems therapy
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is the most effective non-pharmacological treatment for anxiety disorders. CBT focuses on identifying and challenging negative thought patterns and behaviors that contribute to anxiety. It teaches clients practical skills to manage their anxiety, such as relaxation techniques, exposure therapy, and cognitive restructuring. Research has consistently shown that CBT can significantly reduce anxiety symptoms and improve overall functioning.
Choice B Reason:
Psychoanalytic therapy
Psychoanalytic therapy, based on the theories of Freud, aims to uncover unconscious conflicts and past experiences that influence current behavior. While it can be beneficial for some individuals, it is generally not considered the first-line treatment for anxiety disorders. Psychoanalytic therapy tends to be long-term and may not provide the immediate relief that clients with severe anxiety need.
Choice C Reason:
Electroconvulsive (ECT) therapy
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) involves the use of electrical currents to induce seizures in the brain and is primarily used to treat severe depression and certain other mental health conditions. It is not typically used as a treatment for anxiety disorders. ECT is considered a last-resort treatment when other therapies have failed, and it is not suitable for managing anxiety symptoms in most cases.
Choice D Reason:
Family systems therapy
Family systems therapy focuses on improving communication and relationships within the family unit. While it can be helpful for addressing family dynamics and support, it is not specifically designed to treat anxiety disorders. Family therapy may be used as an adjunct to other treatments, but it is not the primary approach for managing anxiety symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Have a poor prognosis
A poor prognosis in schizophrenia is typically associated with persistent and severe symptoms, lack of response to treatment, and significant functional impairment. While the client’s statement about hearing voices is concerning, it does not necessarily indicate a poor prognosis on its own. Prognosis in schizophrenia is multifactorial and depends on various factors, including the duration of untreated psychosis, adherence to treatment, and the presence of supportive social networks.
Choice B Reason: Are not improving and may be getting worse
This choice suggests that the client’s condition is deteriorating. While the presence of hallucinations can indicate a lack of improvement, it is important to consider the context. The client’s ability to question the hallucination and seek reassurance from the nurse suggests a level of insight that is often associated with better outcomes. Insight into one’s condition is a positive prognostic factor in schizophrenia.
Choice C Reason: Are questioning the hallucination and want reassurance from the nurse
This is the correct answer. The client’s question indicates that they are aware that the voices might not be real and are seeking reassurance from the nurse. This level of insight is crucial in managing schizophrenia, as it can lead to better adherence to treatment and improved outcomes. Insight into the nature of hallucinations and delusions is often a sign of a more favorable prognosis.
Choice D Reason: Will begin to enter the manic phase of their illness
Mania is characterized by elevated mood, increased activity, and other symptoms such as decreased need for sleep and grandiosity. It is more commonly associated with bipolar disorder than schizophrenia. The client’s statement about hearing voices predicting their death does not align with the typical presentation of mania. Therefore, this choice is not applicable in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage acute agitation and anxiety. It works by enhancing the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has a calming effect on the brain. Lorazepam is often administered in emergency situations to quickly reduce agitation and prevent escalation to violence. Its rapid onset of action makes it an ideal choice for managing acute episodes of agitation and potential assault.
Choice B Reason:
Valproic acid is an anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer used primarily for the treatment of epilepsy and bipolar disorder. While it can help manage mood swings and prevent manic episodes, it is not typically used for the immediate management of acute agitation or aggression. Its effects are not rapid enough to address an escalating situation effectively.
Choice C Reason:
Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant used to treat major depressive disorder and to support smoking cessation. It works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine, but it does not have the sedative properties needed to manage acute agitation or aggression. Therefore, it is not suitable for immediate intervention in a potentially violent situation.
Choice D Reason:
Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other mood disorders. While it is effective for long-term management of anxiety and depression, it does not have the rapid calming effects required for managing acute agitation or potential assault. SSRIs generally take several weeks to achieve their full therapeutic effect.
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