A client diagnosed with autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) expresses to a nurse that they will never permit disclosure of their diagnosis to anyone. The nurse should provide the client with which of the following education? (Select all that apply.)
Health care providers should be told about the diagnosis to deliver safe care.
Most people in current society would be accepting of the diagnosis.
Intimate partners should be told so they can protect themselves.
The diagnosis is reportable to the state health department.
Secrecy about the diagnosis is the privilege of the client.
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A. Health care providers should be told about the diagnosis to deliver safe care: Health care providers need to know the client's diagnosis to provide appropriate and safe care. This includes administering medications, assessing for opportunistic infections, and implementing preventive measures.
B. Most people in current society would be accepting of the diagnosis: While stigma surrounding HIV/AIDS has decreased over time, disclosure is a personal decision, and not all individuals may be accepting of the diagnosis. Therefore, this statement may not always be accurate.
C. Intimate partners should be told so they can protect themselves: Disclosing the diagnosis to intimate partners is essential for their health and well-being, as it allows them to take necessary precautions to prevent transmission of the virus.
D. The diagnosis is reportable to the state health department: In many jurisdictions, HIV/AIDS diagnoses are reportable to the state health department for surveillance and public health monitoring purposes. This reporting is typically done without disclosing the client's identity.
E. Secrecy about the diagnosis is the privilege of the client: While confidentiality is crucial, it's important to balance it with public health considerations and the well-being of others who may be at risk of infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain: This prescription is appropriate for managing pain associated with acute heart failure and MI.
B. Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. However, the frequency of administration (every 12 hours) may not be sufficient for managing acute heart failure, where more frequent dosing may be necessary initially.
C. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission: This is a routine and appropriate order to monitor electrolyte balance, especially with the use of diuretics.
D. 0.9% normal saline IV at 75 mL/hr: This is a maintenance IV fluid rate that may be appropriate depending on the client's fluid status. However, it does not directly address acute heart failure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Tachypnea: Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a common symptom of pulmonary embolism. It occurs as the body attempts to compensate for decreased oxygenation and increased carbon dioxide levels resulting from impaired blood flow to the lungs. Tachypnea helps to improve gas exchange by increasing ventilation.
B. Wet cough: A wet or productive cough may occur in conditions such as pneumonia or chronic bronchitis but is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is more commonly characterized by symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, and tachypnea.
C. Dull chest pain: Chest pain associated with pulmonary embolism is often sharp and pleuritic, meaning it worsens with deep breathing or coughing. It may be described as stabbing or like a "knife-like" sensation. Dull chest pain is not a typical finding in pulmonary embolism.
D. Episodes of apnea: While severe cases of pulmonary embolism can lead to respiratory failure and apnea, it is not a common presenting symptom. Most clients with pulmonary embolism will exhibit tachypnea as a compensatory mechanism to maintain adequate oxygenation.
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