A client diagnosed with schizophrenia disorder states, "Can't you hear them? It's the devil. The devil is telling me I'm going to hell." Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
"The voices must sound scary, but the devil is not talking to you. This is part of your illness."
"The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence."
"You are not going to hell. You are a good person."
"Did you take your medicine this morning?"
The Correct Answer is A
a. "The voices must sound scary, but the devil is not talking to you. This is part of your illness." Validating the experience ("The voices must sound scary") shows empathy and avoids dismissing the client's reality. Explaining it as part of the illness ("This is part of your illness") provides a non-judgmental explanation.
b. "The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence." Denying the voices can be dismissive and make the client feel isolated.
c. "You are not going to hell. You are a good person." While offering reassurance might seem comforting, it doesn't address the specific hallucination.
d. "Did you take your medicine this morning?" Medication is important, but the immediate priority is to address the hallucination and provide support.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. experience no loss of contact with reality. The key difference is reality testing. Clients with neurosis (anxiety disorders, OCD) generally maintain contact with reality, even though their thoughts or behaviours might be distressing. Clients with psychosis (schizophrenia) experience a break with reality, such as hallucinations or delusions.
b. Never have mood or personality changes. Not true. Mood and personality changes can occur in both neurosis and psychosis.
c. Have conflict but only use adaptive defence mechanisms to cope. Défense mechanisms are used by everyone to cope with anxiety, but in neurosis, they might be less healthy or maladaptive.
d. Are always aware that their behaviours are maladaptive. Not necessarily. Clients with neurosis might have limited insight into how their behaviours affect themselves or others.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. 1030-1130: Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that typically peaks in 1-2 hours. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur during the peak action time.
b. 1130-1230: This is beyond the typical peak action time for insulin aspart, making hypoglycemia less likely during this interval.
c. 1000: This falls within the typical peak action time of 1-2 hours for insulin aspart, making hypoglycemia possible but the interval is slightly too narrow to capture the full peak effect.
d. 0800-0830: Insulin aspart begins to act within 10-20 minutes, but hypoglycemia typically does not occur this soon after administration unless there is an issue with meal timing or dosage.
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