A client has a new prescription of spironolactone (Aldactone), and wants to learn about how the mechanism of action of this medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse explain to the client?
This medication works in the high-ceiling loop diuretics work in the loop of Henle. It blocks the reabsorption of sodium and chloride and prevents the reabsorption of water, which causes extensive diuresis even with severe renal impairment
This medication works in the distal tubule to block the reabsorption of sodium and chloride and prevents the reabsorption of water.
This medication reduces intracranial pressure and intraocular pressure by raising serum osmolality and drawing fluid back into the vascular and extravascular space.
This medication blocks the action of aldosterone (sodium and water retention), which results in potassium retention and the excretion of sodium and water.
The Correct Answer is D
A. This statement is incorrect because spironolactone is not a loop diuretic and does not act in the loop of Henle. It works in the distal tubules of the kidney.
B. This description is more accurate for thiazide diuretics. Spironolactone works as an aldosterone antagonist and primarily affects sodium and water retention.
C. This description applies to osmotic diuretics like mannitol, not spironolactone.
D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone, preventing sodium and water retention, while promoting the retention of potassium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
A. "This medication is also used to treat male pattern baldness.": Sildenafil is not indicated for treating male pattern baldness; it is used for erectile dysfunction.
B. "Complications of this medication are priapism, sudden hearing loss, and myocardial infarction.": This is correct, as sildenafil can cause these serious side effects.
C. "You should take this medication 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity.": This is correct, as sildenafil is typically taken within this time frame.
D. "A complication of this medication is incontinence.": Incontinence is not a known complication of sildenafil use.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Vomiting is not typically associated with extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). However, prochlorperazine is used to prevent nausea and vomiting, so vomiting would not be related to EPS.
B. Restlessness (also called akathisia) is a common symptom of EPS, which is a movement disorder that can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic medications like prochlorperazine. Other symptoms may include tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
C. Pulmonary edema is not a sign of EPS. It is a serious condition involving fluid accumulation in the lungs, typically related to heart failure or other serious health conditions.
D. Nausea is not a sign of EPS. While prochlorperazine is used to treat nausea, EPS symptoms typically involve abnormal movements or muscle control issues.
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