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A client has a new prescription of spironolactone (Aldactone), and wants to learn about how the mechanism of action of this medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse explain to the client?

This medication works in the high-ceiling loop diuretics work in the loop of Henle. It blocks the reabsorption of sodium and chloride and prevents the reabsorption of water, which causes extensive diuresis even with severe renal impairment

This medication works in the distal tubule to block the reabsorption of sodium and chloride and prevents the reabsorption of water.

This medication reduces intracranial pressure and intraocular pressure by raising serum osmolality and drawing fluid back into the vascular and extravascular space.

This medication blocks the action of aldosterone (sodium and water retention), which results in potassium retention and the excretion of sodium and water.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   This statement is incorrect because spironolactone is not a loop diuretic and does not act in the loop of Henle. It works in the distal tubules of the kidney.
B.   This description is more accurate for thiazide diuretics. Spironolactone works as an aldosterone antagonist and primarily affects sodium and water retention.
C.   This description applies to osmotic diuretics like mannitol, not spironolactone.
D.   Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone, preventing sodium and water retention, while promoting the retention of potassium.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

A. Hypoglycemia: Aspirin is not used to treat hypoglycemia.
B. Inflammation suppression: Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory medication that can help suppress inflammation.
C. Dysmenorrhea: Aspirin is commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea (menstrual cramps).
D. Hypokalemia: Aspirin is not used to treat hypokalemia.

A. Oral (PO) B. Intravenous (IV) C. Intramuscular (M) D. Subcutaneous (SC)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This primarily affects oral medications, as they are absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and first pass through the liver.
B. Intravenous (IV) drugs bypass the first-pass effect as they are directly introduced into the bloodstream.
C. Intramuscular (IM) and D. Subcutaneous (SC) routes also bypass the first-pass effect since the drug enters the bloodstream without passing through the liver initially.

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A client has a new prescription of spironolactone (Aldactone), and wants to learn about how the mechanism of action of this medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse explain to the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client has been prescribed acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) by the healthcare provider. However, the client is not sure about the uses of aspirin. What of the following are the appropriate indications for aspirin? (Select All That Apply.).

Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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