A client has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis (IM) caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the incidence of classic IM?
Classic IM is more common in older adults aged 50 and above.
Classic IM has a seasonal variation, with peaks in summer.
Classic IM has a low risk of malignancy associated with EBV infection.
Classic IM has a higher incidence in developing countries than in developed countries.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Classic IM is not more common in older adults aged 50 and above. It primarily affects adolescents and young adults.
Choice B rationale:
Classic IM does exhibit a seasonal variation, with higher incidence rates during the summer. This is believed to be related to increased social interactions and close contact during warm months.
Choice C rationale:
Classic IM does not have a low risk of malignancy associated with EBV infection. EBV is linked to certain malignancies, such as Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Choice D rationale:
Classic IM does not have a higher incidence in developing countries. It is a widespread infection seen across various regions, including developed and developing countries.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This choice is incorrect. Routine screening and testing for STIs fall under primary prevention, aiming to prevent the initial occurrence of infections.
Choice B rationale:
This choice is incorrect. Providing wound care and comfort measures is a component of secondary prevention, focusing on early detection and treatment of existing infections.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is incorrect. Vaccination against hepatitis B and human papillomavirus is a form of primary prevention, reducing the risk of acquiring these specific infections.
Choice D rationale:
This choice is correct. Tertiary prevention involves managing chronic conditions that result from STIs, such as HIV/AIDS, to improve quality of life and prevent complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood culture is not the preferred diagnostic method for confirming genital herpes. Herpes simplex virus is best detected through methods that target viral DNA or RNA, such as NAAT.
Choice B rationale:
Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) using urine is an appropriate diagnostic method for confirming genital herpes. This test detects the genetic material of the herpes virus and is commonly used for accurate diagnosis.
Choice C rationale:
Wet mount microscopy using vaginal discharge is used to diagnose conditions such as bacterial vaginosis and yeast infections, but it is not the primary method for diagnosing genital herpes.
Choice D rationale:
Serologic testing using a blood sample can detect antibodies to herpes, indicating past exposure or infection. However, it may not be as accurate for confirming an active genital herpes outbreak as NAAT.
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