A client has had an uncomplicated repair of an inguinal hernia. On the second post- operative day, the client has mildly elevated temperature and general malaise. The nurse recognizes that this is a generalized body response which is common to which phase of healing?

Inflammatory

Proliferation

Remodeling

Infection

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale: An inflammatory response, including mild fever and malaise, is common during the inflammatory phase of healing, which occurs in the initial postoperative period.

Choice B rationale: Proliferation is the phase of healing characterized by tissue repair and regeneration, not by fever and malaise.

Choice C rationale: Remodeling is the final phase of healing involving tissue maturation and strengthening, not associated with generalized body responses.

Choice D rationale: Infection is a separate complication and may present with more severe symptoms than mild fever and malaise.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Propranolol 10 mg PO twice a day would typically be given with a more extended interval between doses, not at 10:00 AM, 2:00 PM, and 6:00 PM.
Choice B rationale: Diazepam 5 mg PO three times a day would align with the specified dosing schedule of 10:00 AM, 2:00 PM, and 6:00 PM.
Choice C rationale: Cephalexin 500 mg PO q4 hours would require more frequent dosing than the specified schedule.
Choice D rationale: Morphine Sulfate 10 mg IM q4 hours prn pain is ordered every 4 hours, not at the specified times of 10:00 AM, 2:00 PM, and 6:00 PM.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B"}

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Stage I pressure ulcers involve intact skin with non-blanchable redness, and there is no mention of intact skin in the scenario.

Choice B rationale: Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss, typically presenting as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater, which aligns with the description provided.

Choice C rationale: Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss with damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue but do not match the described scenario.

Choice D rationale: Stage IV pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures, which does not align with the description of partial thickness skin loss in the scenario.

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A client has had an uncomplicated repair of an inguinal hernia. On the second post- operative day, the client has mildly elevated temperature and general malaise. The nurse recognizes that this is a generalized body response which is common to which phase of healing?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is transcribing a medication order and schedules dosing for 10:00 AM, 2:00 PM and 6:00 PM. Which medication order is consistent with this schedule?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When doing the client's skin assessment, the nurse notes a 3 cm area of partial thickness skin loss that looks like a blister on the client's sacral area. The nurse consults the wound care nurse, who stages the wound as a dropdown pressure ulcer.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B"}

Explanation

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of R/O appendicitis. Which abbreviation would describe the location of a client's appendix?

A client has had an uncomplicated repair of an inguinal hernia. On the second post- operative day, the client has mildly elevated temperature and general malaise. The nurse recognizes that this is a generalized body response which is common to which phase of healing?

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