A client in the intensive care unit has a presentation of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and coma after overdosing on morphine sulfate (Astramorph). Which of the following is the appropriate complication based on the client's presentation?

Opioid toxicity triad.

Orthostatic hypotension.

Hypertension.

Abstinence syndrome.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Opioid toxicity triad includes symptoms of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and coma. These symptoms are indicative of a morphine sulfate overdose.

Choice B rationale

Orthostatic hypotension is a form of low blood pressure that happens when standing up from sitting or lying down. It is not related to opioid toxicity.

Choice C rationale

Hypertension is high blood pressure. It is not related to opioid toxicity.

Choice D rationale

Abstinence syndrome is a group of symptoms that occur upon the abrupt discontinuation or decrease in intake of medications or recreational drugs. It is not the appropriate complication for the client's presentation. .

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Tumor enhancer genes is not a recognized term in oncology. DNA repair genes, along with proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes, are critical in cancer development.

Choice B rationale

There are specific genes involved in cancer development, as mentioned in the other options.

Choice C rationale

Proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes are both involved, but DNA repair genes also play a significant role.

Choice D rationale

Proto-oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, and DNA repair genes collectively contribute to cancer development by either promoting or failing to prevent cell proliferation and damage repair.

A. Insulin. B. Warfarin (Coumadin). C. Heparin. D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox).

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.

Choice B rationale

Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.

Choice C rationale

Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.

Choice D rationale

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.

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A client in the intensive care unit has a presentation of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and coma after overdosing on morphine sulfate (Astramorph). Which of the following is the appropriate complication based on the client's presentation?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with cervical cancer.What type of genes can cause cancer?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) that will be discharged from the hospital in the next hour.The nurse notes that the client is unable to provide self-injections at home.Which of the following medications should the nurse expect for discharge to manage the DVT at home?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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