Which client is at greatest risk for osteoporosis?
A 30-year-old male who drinks alcohol occasionally with a BMI of 25
A 22-year-old female who recently had a baby
A 40-year-old male taking glucocorticoids for inflammatory bowel disease
A 35-year-old female who recently began running marathons
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: A 30-year-old male with occasional alcohol use and normal BMI (25) has minimal osteoporosis risk. Alcohol in moderation and normal weight do not significantly reduce bone density. Peak bone mass is typically preserved at this age, making him less at risk compared to glucocorticoid users.
Choice B reason: A 22-year-old female post-pregnancy may experience temporary bone density loss due to calcium demands during pregnancy and lactation, but young age and ongoing bone remodeling reduce long-term osteoporosis risk. Recovery is likely with adequate nutrition, making her less at risk than the glucocorticoid-treated patient.
Choice C reason: Glucocorticoids, used for inflammatory bowel disease, significantly increase osteoporosis risk by inhibiting osteoblast activity, reducing calcium absorption, and increasing bone resorption. This 40-year-old male faces accelerated bone loss, especially with chronic use, making him the highest risk among the options due to medication-induced bone density reduction.
Choice D reason: A 35-year-old female running marathons engages in weight-bearing exercise, which promotes bone density through mechanical stress and osteoblast stimulation. This reduces osteoporosis risk compared to glucocorticoid use, as exercise enhances bone remodeling and strength, making her less likely to develop osteoporosis than the male on steroids.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Levothyroxine (T4) replacement requires TSH monitoring to ensure adequate dosing, as TSH reflects thyroid function. T3 replacement also requires monitoring, but T3 is less commonly used due to its short half-life. This statement is inaccurate, as TSH monitoring is essential for T4 therapy.
Choice B reason: The body converts levothyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3) via deiodinase enzymes in peripheral tissues, restoring both hormone levels. T3 replacement is unnecessary, as T4 provides a stable precursor for T3 production, making this statement accurate for explaining hypothyroidism treatment rationale.
Choice C reason: T3 and T4 can be administered together in specific cases (e.g., combination therapy) without becoming inactive. However, T4 alone is standard due to its longer half-life and conversion to T3. This statement is inaccurate, as it falsely claims biochemical incompatibility between the hormones.
Choice D reason: T3 is the active thyroid hormone, not an inactive precursor to T4. T4 is converted to T3, which binds receptors to regulate metabolism. This statement is inaccurate, as it reverses the roles of T3 and T4 in thyroid hormone physiology and therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Obesity significantly increases the risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus by promoting insulin resistance. Excess adipose tissue, particularly visceral fat, releases free fatty acids and cytokines, impairing glucose uptake in cells. This leads to hyperglycemia and beta-cell dysfunction, with obese individuals having a 5-10 times higher risk of developing this condition.
Choice B reason: Hypothyroidism is less directly linked to obesity than type 2 diabetes. While it can cause weight gain due to slowed metabolism, obesity is not a primary risk factor for hypothyroidism. Thyroid dysfunction arises more from autoimmune or iodine-related causes, making it a less likely complication compared to diabetes.
Choice C reason: Osteoporosis risk is not strongly associated with obesity. Excess body weight may increase bone density due to mechanical loading, but it does not directly cause bone loss. Obesity-related inflammation may have minor effects, but type 2 diabetes poses a far greater risk due to metabolic changes.
Choice D reason: Migraine headaches are not a primary complication of obesity. While obesity may exacerbate migraines through inflammatory pathways or comorbidities like sleep apnea, the association is weaker than with type 2 diabetes. Metabolic and insulin-related effects of obesity make diabetes the most significant and direct risk.
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