Upon assessment of the lungs, the nurse hears continuous, high-pitched, musical sounds. This should be documented as:
Wheezes
Rhonchi
Fine crackles
Vesicular sounds
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Wheezes are continuous, high-pitched, musical sounds that occur when air flows through narrowed or obstructed airways1. They can be heard during both inspiration and expiration and are commonly associated with conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and bronchitis. Wheezes are a key indicator of airway obstruction and require prompt medical attention to address the underlying cause.
Choice B Reason:
Rhonchi are low-pitched, continuous sounds that resemble snoring or gurgling. They are typically caused by secretions or obstructions in the larger airways. Unlike wheezes, rhonchi are not high-pitched and do not have a musical quality. They are often heard in conditions like chronic bronchitis and can sometimes be cleared with coughing.
Choice C Reason:
Fine crackles are discontinuous, high-pitched popping sounds heard during inspiration. They are caused by the sudden opening of small airways and alveoli that are collapsed or filled with fluid. Fine crackles are often associated with conditions such as pneumonia, heart failure, and pulmonary fibrosis. They are not continuous sounds and do not have the musical quality of wheezes.
Choice D Reason:
Vesicular sounds are normal breath sounds heard over most of the lung fields. They are soft, low-pitched, and rustling in quality during inspiration and are fainter during expiration. Vesicular sounds indicate normal, unobstructed airflow through the small airways and alveoli. They are not continuous or high-pitched and do not have a musical quality.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
“You should share this thought with your psychiatrist.”
This response suggests that the client should discuss their harmful thoughts with their psychiatrist. While it is important for the client to communicate openly with their mental health provider, this response does not directly address the nurse’s ethical and legal obligation to report threats of harm. The nurse has a duty to ensure the safety of others, and simply redirecting the client to another professional does not fulfill this responsibility. According to the Tarasoff rule, healthcare providers have a duty to warn potential victims if a client poses a credible threat.
Choice B Reason:
“I can make that promise to you based on nurse-client privilege.”
This statement is incorrect because nurse-client privilege does not extend to situations where there is a threat of harm to others. Confidentiality in healthcare is crucial, but it has limits, especially when it comes to preventing harm. Nurses are legally and ethically obligated to report any threats of violence or harm to appropriate authorities to protect potential victims. Making such a promise would be misleading and could result in serious consequences.
Choice C Reason:
“Those kinds of thoughts will make your hospitalization longer.”
This response is inappropriate as it focuses on the potential consequences for the client rather than addressing the immediate concern of a threat to another person’s safety. It may also discourage the client from being honest about their thoughts in the future. The primary responsibility of the nurse in this situation is to ensure the safety of the client and others, which involves reporting the threat to the appropriate authorities.
Choice D Reason:
“I cannot promise that. Confidentiality does not include plans to hurt others.”
This is the correct response. It clearly communicates to the client that while confidentiality is important, it does not cover plans to harm others. The nurse must explain that they are obligated to report any threats of violence to ensure the safety of potential victims. This response aligns with legal and ethical guidelines, which mandate that healthcare providers report credible threats of harm.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The statement “Documentation of the event will include interventions attempted prior to initiating restraints” is correct. Proper documentation is crucial when restraints are used. This includes detailing the client’s behavior that necessitated the restraint, the interventions attempted before applying the restraint, the type of restraint used, and the time it was applied. This documentation ensures transparency and accountability, and it helps in evaluating the necessity and appropriateness of the restraint use.
Choice B Reason:
The statement “The physician must be present at the time of the restraint episode” is incorrect. While a physician’s order is required for the use of restraints, the physician does not need to be physically present at the time of the restraint episode. However, the physician must evaluate the client within a specified time frame after the restraint is applied, typically within one hour. This ensures that the restraint is medically justified and that the client’s condition is appropriately monitored.
Choice C Reason:
The statement “The client will be turned every 2 hours” is correct. Clients in restraints must be regularly repositioned to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to ensure their comfort. Turning the client every 2 hours is a standard practice to maintain skin integrity and promote circulation. This intervention is part of the comprehensive care plan for clients in restraints.
Choice D Reason:
The statement “The client will need to be monitored every one-half hour” is correct. Frequent monitoring of clients in restraints is essential to ensure their safety and well-being. This includes checking for signs of distress, ensuring that the restraints are not causing harm, and assessing the client’s vital signs5. Monitoring every 30 minutes helps in promptly addressing any issues that may arise and ensures that the restraints are used safely and effectively.
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