A client is prescribed estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy. What risk factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) should the nurse identify in this client?
Advanced age
Male gender
Smoking history
Hormonal therapy
The Correct Answer is D
A) This choice is incorrect because advanced age is a non-modifiable risk factor for DVT. While age is associated with increased risk, it is not directly related to the client's use of hormonal therapy.
B) This choice is incorrect because male gender is not a risk factor for DVT. Women, particularly those on estrogen-based therapies like hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives, are at higher risk.
C) This choice is incorrect because smoking history is a modifiable risk factor for DVT, not directly related to hormonal therapy. Smoking increases the risk of clot formation and is not specific to the client's use of hormonal therapy.
D) This choice is correct. Estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives can increase the risk of DVT due to their effect on blood coagulation. Estrogen can increase the production of certain clotting factors, raising the risk of blood clot formation in the veins. It is essential for healthcare providers to weigh the benefits and risks when prescribing hormonal therapy to clients.
Questions
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Measuring the client's blood pressure is an important assessment but is not the immediate priority when preparing to administer enoxaparin.
B. Assessing the client's platelet count is critical before administering enoxaparin, especially because low molecular weight heparins can lead to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Monitoring platelet levels helps to ensure the client's safety and prevent complications.
C. Ensuring the client has an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary for the administration of enoxaparin and does not relate to its safety or efficacy.
D. Obtaining the client's weight is relevant for dosing but is secondary to assessing the platelet count, particularly in light of the risk of HIT.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because anticoagulants do not dissolve existing blood clots in the veins. They prevent further clot formation and allow the body's natural mechanisms to dissolve the clot over time.
B) This choice is correct. Anticoagulants work by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, which prevents the formation of new blood clots and reduces the risk of the existing clot enlarging or causing additional complications.
C) This choice is incorrect because while anticoagulants may indirectly reduce pain and inflammation by preventing further clot formation, their primary action is to prevent clotting, not directly reduce pain and inflammation associated with DVT.
D) This choice is incorrect because while anticoagulants can improve blood flow by preventing clot formation, they do not directly "improve" blood flow to the affected limb.
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