A client is prescribed estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy. What risk factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) should the nurse identify in this client?
Advanced age
Male gender
Smoking history
Hormonal therapy
The Correct Answer is D
A) This choice is incorrect because advanced age is a non-modifiable risk factor for DVT. While age is associated with increased risk, it is not directly related to the client's use of hormonal therapy.
B) This choice is incorrect because male gender is not a risk factor for DVT. Women, particularly those on estrogen-based therapies like hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptives, are at higher risk.
C) This choice is incorrect because smoking history is a modifiable risk factor for DVT, not directly related to hormonal therapy. Smoking increases the risk of clot formation and is not specific to the client's use of hormonal therapy.
D) This choice is correct. Estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives can increase the risk of DVT due to their effect on blood coagulation. Estrogen can increase the production of certain clotting factors, raising the risk of blood clot formation in the veins. It is essential for healthcare providers to weigh the benefits and risks when prescribing hormonal therapy to clients.
Questions
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because monitoring prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is more relevant to monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy (e.g., warfarin) and not intravenous heparin therapy.
B) This choice is incorrect because while liver function tests may be important for some medications, they are not the priority for clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Heparin is primarily eliminated by the kidneys.
C) This choice is incorrect because while administering heparin via a central venous catheter is possible, it is not the priority action for safe administration. Monitoring the client's response to heparin therapy is more important.
D) This choice is correct. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the priority action when administering intravenous heparin. The aPTT reflects the client's response to heparin and helps adjust the dosage to achieve the desired therapeutic effect while minimizing the risk of bleeding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because a family history of high cholesterol is not directly related to DVT risk. While high cholesterol may contribute to other cardiovascular conditions, it is not a primary risk factor for DVT.
B) This choice is incorrect because a history of asthma is not a direct risk factor for DVT. Asthma is a respiratory condition and is not significantly associated with blood clot formation.
C) This choice is correct. Prolonged immobility during long flights, especially in cramped spaces, is a known risk factor for DVT. This condition is often referred to as "economy class syndrome" due to its association with long-haul flights in tight seating.
D) This choice is incorrect because the use of medications for diabetes does not directly relate to DVT risk. While some medications may influence blood clotting, diabetes itself is not a primary risk factor for DVT.
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