A client is prescribed ferrous sulfate (Feosol). Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse discuss with a client prior to the administration of this drug?
Constipation.
Fluid retention.
Fatigue.
Clay colored stools.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Constipation is a potential adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate (Feosol), an iron supplement. Iron can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, including constipation, due to its effect on slowing down bowel movements and hardening of stool. It is important for the nurse to discuss this with the client before administering the drug to ensure the client is aware of this potential side effect.
Choice B rationale:
Fluid retention is not a common adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. In fact, iron supplements are more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues like constipation rather than fluid retention.
Choice C rationale:
Fatigue is not a direct adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. In some cases, iron deficiency can lead to fatigue, but this is usually a result of the underlying condition and not the medication itself.
Choice D rationale:
Clay-colored stools are not a typical adverse reaction to ferrous sulfate. This may indicate a potential issue with liver function or biliary obstruction but is not directly related to the iron supplement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Alkylating agents are cell cycle-specific drugs. They work on cells during various stages of the cell cycle and are classified as cell cycle phase-nonspecific drugs. These drugs form covalent bonds with DNA, preventing DNA replication and transcription. This action disrupts the cell cycle, making them effective against actively dividing cells.
Choice B rationale:
Plant alkaloids are not cell cycle-specific drugs. Plant alkaloids, such as vinblastine and vincristine, are derived from plants and are classified as cell cycle phase-specific drugs. They primarily affect cells during the M phase of the cell cycle by disrupting microtubule formation. While they are effective against rapidly dividing cells, they are not cell cycle-specific.
Choice C rationale:
Antineoplastic antibiotics are not cell cycle-specific drugs. These drugs, such as doxorubicin and daunorubicin, are used in cancer treatment and primarily work by intercalating with DNA and inhibiting topoisomerase enzymes. Their mechanisms of action do not specifically target a particular phase of the cell cycle, making them cell cycle phase-nonspecific.
Choice D rationale:
Retinoids are not cell cycle-specific drugs. Retinoids are derived from vitamin A and have various mechanisms of action, including regulating cell growth and differentiation. They are not classified as cell cycle-specific drugs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Nonprotease inhibitors are not typically a part of HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy). Protease inhibitors are used to inhibit HIV replication.
Choice B rationale:
Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) are often used in HAART, but they are not the primary agents responsible for inhibiting the integration of the viral genome into the host cell's DNA. NNRTIs target the reverse transcriptase enzyme.
Choice C rationale:
Entry inhibitors are another class of antiretroviral drugs, but they work by blocking the entry of the virus into host cells, not by inhibiting integration. They are used in combination with other drugs in specific cases.
Choice D rationale:
Integrase inhibitors are a class of antiretroviral drugs that specifically target the enzyme integrase, which is responsible for integrating the viral genome into the host cell's DNA. This choice is correct because integrase inhibitors are a crucial component of HAART and help prevent the virus from replicating in the host's cells.
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