A client is receiving heparin sodium 5000 units IV and oral warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO for thrombophlebitis in the left leg. The nurse educated the client that heparin and warfarin are both used because:

the heparin provides anticoagulation until the warfarin becomes effective.

this combination facilitates the dissolving of the clot.

smaller doses of both drugs can be used with this method of administration.

this combination provides immediate maximum protection against clot formation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Heparin acts quickly to provide immediate anticoagulation, while warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels. Heparin ensures that the client is adequately anticoagulated during the initial phase while waiting for warfarin to take effect.
B.   Neither heparin nor warfarin directly dissolves clots. They are both anticoagulants that prevent further clot formation and allow the body's natural processes (fibrinolysis) to break down the existing clot over time. The combination does not specifically facilitate the dissolution of clots.
C.   This statement is misleading. The use of both medications is not primarily about reducing the doses. Instead, each medication has its own dosing based on the patient’s needs, and the combination is used for timing and efficacy rather than dose reduction.
D.   While heparin does provide immediate anticoagulation, saying it provides "maximum protection" could be misleading. It does ensure effective anticoagulation in the short term, but the maximum effect is related to individual response and therapeutic levels, which vary. Additionally, once warfarin reaches therapeutic levels, it becomes the primary agent for long-term anticoagulation.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A. The nurse should notify the prescriber about the current dose (7 mL/hr) because the patient is ordered 1600 units of heparin per hour. The current infusion rate needs to be assessed in relation to the aPTT result, especially if the aPTT indicates that the patient may be at risk for bleeding.
B. While having a second IV may be useful for administering fluids or medications in case of a bleeding emergency, there is no immediate indication for IV 0.9 saline in this scenario. The priority is to assess the heparin dosage and aPTT before making additional IV arrangements.
C. It’s important to assess the IV site for signs of infiltration, especially since the patient is on heparin therapy. Infiltration can affect the effectiveness of the medication and cause complications, so this assessment is vital.
D. While it is important to verify lab results, the nurse should primarily focus on addressing the current situation regarding the heparin infusion and the patient’s anticoagulation status rather than confirming lab results with the lab technician at this moment.
E. While protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin, it is not warranted based solely on the aPTT result of 37 seconds. The normal aPTT range is typically around 30-40 seconds, depending on the laboratory standards, and the aPTT may not indicate that the patient requires reversal of heparin at this time.

A. Notify the physician since this is a sign of deterioration. B. Offer the client back massage to reduce the pain. C. Place the client in prone position to limit vesicoureteral reflux. D. Offer the client an analgesic if prescribed.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While costovertebral tenderness is significant and indicates kidney involvement, it is a common symptom of acute pyelonephritis and not necessarily a sign of deterioration. Immediate notification may not be warranted unless other concerning symptoms are present.
B. Although back massage may seem comforting, it is not indicated in this scenario. The kidneys are inflamed, and massage could exacerbate pain or discomfort. It does not address the underlying condition or the pain effectively.
C. The prone position is not typically recommended for clients with pyelonephritis. Instead, the client may be more comfortable in a position that does not put pressure on the kidneys, such as sitting up or lying on their back or side. This intervention does not directly address the pain or comfort of the client.
D. Offering an analgesic is the most appropriate action. Pain management is crucial for the comfort of the client, and an analgesic can help alleviate the discomfort associated with costovertebral tenderness. If the physician has prescribed an analgesic, administering it would be in line with promoting comfort and addressing the client’s needs.

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A client is receiving heparin sodium 5000 units IV and oral warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO for thrombophlebitis in the left leg. The nurse educated the client that heparin and warfarin are both used because:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A 72-year-old client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. The client complains of costovertebral tenderness. What it the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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