A client who was admitted yesterday with severe dehydration is reporting pain where a 24 gauge intravenous (IV) catheter with normal saline is infusing at a rate of 150 mL/hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Establish a second IV site.

Stop the normal saline infusion.

Assess the IV for blood return. D. Discontinue the 24 gauge IV.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A)   Incorrect- While a second IV site might be considered if the first one is causing significant discomfort, it's not the initial intervention. The nurse should first address the immediate concern of pain.
B)   Correct- Pain at the IV site during infusion might indicate infiltration or irritation. Stopping the infusion is the most immediate intervention to prevent further discomfort and potential complications like tissue damage.
C)   Incorrect- While assessing for blood return is important to ensure proper IV placement, it's not the initial intervention for managing pain caused by the infusion.
D)   Incorrect- Discontinuing the IV might be considered if the pain is severe and unmanageable, but the nurse should initially try to address the discomfort without removing the IV.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

- Urinary output is an important indicator of ﬂuid balance and kidney function. After delivery, a woman may experience increased urinary output due to the loss of excess ﬂuid that was retained during pregnancy and the diuretic eﬀect of oxytocin, which is released during breastfeeding. This is a normal and expected finding in the postpartum period.

- However, increased urinary output may also be a sign of urinary retention, which is the inability to empty the bladder completely. Urinary retention can occur due to trauma to the bladder or urethra during delivery, swelling or hematoma of the perineum, epidural anesthesia, or decreased bladder sensation. Urinary retention can lead to complications such as infection, bladder distension, or postpartum hemorrhage.

- Therefore, when a woman who delivered a normal newborn 24 hours ago reports that she seems to be urinating every hour or so, the practical nurse (PN) should measure the next voiding, and then palpate the client's bladder. This will help to assess the amount and quality of urine and the presence or absence of bladder distension. A normal urine output is about 30 ml per hour, and a normal bladder should feel soft and empty after voiding. If the urine output is low or high, or if the bladder feels firm or full after voiding, the PN should report these findings to the primary healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.

Option A is incorrect because catheterizing the client for residual urine volume is an invasive procedure that should only be done if indicated by the primary healthcare provider.

Option C is incorrect because evaluating for normal involution and massaging the fundus are related to uterine function, not urinary function.

Option D is incorrect because obtaining a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity is not necessary unless there are signs of infection, such as fever, dysuria, or foul-smelling urine.

A. The lab results indicate myocardial damage, and the client is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias B. The client is at risk for pulmonary embolism, and lifestyle modifications need to be implemented. C. The client is at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI). D. The lab results indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), and neurological vital signs should be monitored.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suﬀered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart atack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.

The other options are not correct because:

The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood ﬂow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood ﬂow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.

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A client who was admitted yesterday with severe dehydration is reporting pain where a 24 gauge intravenous (IV) catheter with normal saline is infusing at a rate of 150 mL/hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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