A client is scheduled for surgery at 0800 and has been NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight. They have been taking long-term oral steroids and are scheduled for their routine dose of Prednisone 30 mg PO to be administered at 0600. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Ask why the client is taking steroid therapy

Notify the surgeon immediately

Administer an IV equivalent dose of Prednisone

Give the oral steroid with a small sip of water

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Ask why the client is taking steroid therapy: While understanding the reason for steroid therapy is important, it does not address the immediate need to manage the medication administration.
B. Notify the surgeon immediately: Notifying the surgeon might be necessary if there are specific concerns, but it is not the most immediate action regarding medication administration.
C. Administer an IV equivalent dose of Prednisone: Since the client is NPO, administering an oral medication could be contraindicated. Administering an IV equivalent ensures the client receives the necessary steroid therapy without risking complications from taking oral medication while fasting.
D. Give the oral steroid with a small sip of water: This may not be appropriate due to the NPO status, which typically restricts oral intake.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Facilitating sodium and potassium exchange: This is not related to vitamin D. Sodium and potassium exchange is primarily managed by other mechanisms in the body.
B. DNA and prothrombin synthesis: This role is more associated with vitamins like B12 and K, not vitamin D.
C. Regulating calcium and phosphorus metabolism: This is the correct choice. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the diet and their metabolism in the body.
D. Production of beta carotene: Beta carotene is a precursor to vitamin A, not related to vitamin D's functions.

A. Discontinue use of supplemental oxygen B. Encouraging use of incentive spirometer C. Implement fluid restrictions D. Administering an antitussive agent

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Discontinue use of supplemental oxygen: This option is incorrect because supplemental oxygen is used to increase the oxygen levels in the blood, which is not directly related to addressing respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the problem is primarily with the elimination of CO2 rather than oxygenation.
B. Encouraging use of incentive spirometer: This is the correct choice as using an incentive spirometer helps improve lung expansion and promotes alveolar ventilation, which aids in reducing CO2 levels in the blood, thereby addressing respiratory acidosis.
C. Implement fluid restrictions: This option is not suitable because fluid restrictions do not directly address the underlying issue of respiratory acidosis. Fluid restrictions might be necessary for other conditions, but they are not effective in correcting respiratory acid-base imbalances.
D. Administering an antitussive agent: This is incorrect because antitussive agents suppress cough reflexes, which can be counterproductive. In respiratory acidosis, coughing is often a protective mechanism to help clear secretions, so suppressing it may worsen the acid-base imbalance.

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A client is scheduled for surgery at 0800 and has been NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight. They have been taking long-term oral steroids and are scheduled for their routine dose of Prednisone 30 mg PO to be administered at 0600. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is providing teaching to the client about the use of vitamins and supplements. The nurse would state that vitamin D has a major role in which process?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Arterial blood gases on a postoperative client with pneumonia indicate the client is in respiratory acidosis. To best improve this acid-base imbalance, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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