A client is scheduled for surgery at 0800 and has been NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight. They have been taking long-term oral steroids and are scheduled for their routine dose of Prednisone 30 mg PO to be administered at 0600. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Ask why the client is taking steroid therapy

Notify the surgeon immediately

Administer an IV equivalent dose of Prednisone

Give the oral steroid with a small sip of water

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Ask why the client is taking steroid therapy: While understanding the reason for steroid therapy is important, it does not address the immediate need to manage the medication administration.
B. Notify the surgeon immediately: Notifying the surgeon might be necessary if there are specific concerns, but it is not the most immediate action regarding medication administration.
C. Administer an IV equivalent dose of Prednisone: Since the client is NPO, administering an oral medication could be contraindicated. Administering an IV equivalent ensures the client receives the necessary steroid therapy without risking complications from taking oral medication while fasting.
D. Give the oral steroid with a small sip of water: This may not be appropriate due to the NPO status, which typically restricts oral intake.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Facilitating sodium and potassium exchange: This is not related to vitamin D. Sodium and potassium exchange is primarily managed by other mechanisms in the body.
B. DNA and prothrombin synthesis: This role is more associated with vitamins like B12 and K, not vitamin D.
C. Regulating calcium and phosphorus metabolism: This is the correct choice. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the diet and their metabolism in the body.
D. Production of beta carotene: Beta carotene is a precursor to vitamin A, not related to vitamin D's functions.

A. Abdomen soft, surgical dressing has scant amount of old drainage B. Client ambulating with minimal assistance, complaints of occasional nausea C. Crackles bilaterally in bases of lungs, has incisional pain D. Temperature 99.4°F (37.4°C), pulse 100 bpm, bowel sounds present

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Abdomen soft, surgical dressing has scant amount of old drainage: A soft abdomen and minimal old drainage from the surgical dressing are expected findings postoperatively. They do not indicate an immediate concern that requires prompt action.
B. Client ambulating with minimal assistance, complaints of occasional nausea: Ambulation and occasional nausea are common and generally expected postoperatively. These findings do not require urgent collaboration with the healthcare provider.
C. Crackles bilaterally in bases of lungs, has incisional pain: Crackles in the lungs can indicate fluid accumulation or atelectasis, which may lead to pneumonia or other respiratory complications. This finding, especially combined with recent surgery, requires prompt evaluation and intervention.
D. Temperature 99.4°F (37.4°C), pulse 100 bpm, bowel sounds present: A slightly elevated temperature and increased pulse are common after surgery. The presence of bowel sounds is a positive sign indicating the return of gastrointestinal function. These findings are not immediately concerning.

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A client is scheduled for surgery at 0800 and has been NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight. They have been taking long-term oral steroids and are scheduled for their routine dose of Prednisone 30 mg PO to be administered at 0600. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

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