A client is scheduled for surgery at 0800 and has been NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight. They have been taking long-term oral steroids and are scheduled for their routine dose of Prednisone 30 mg PO to be administered at 0600. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Ask why the client is taking steroid therapy

Notify the surgeon immediately

Administer an IV equivalent dose of Prednisone

Give the oral steroid with a small sip of water

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Ask why the client is taking steroid therapy: While understanding the reason for steroid therapy is important, it does not address the immediate need to manage the medication administration.
B. Notify the surgeon immediately: Notifying the surgeon might be necessary if there are specific concerns, but it is not the most immediate action regarding medication administration.
C. Administer an IV equivalent dose of Prednisone: Since the client is NPO, administering an oral medication could be contraindicated. Administering an IV equivalent ensures the client receives the necessary steroid therapy without risking complications from taking oral medication while fasting.
D. Give the oral steroid with a small sip of water: This may not be appropriate due to the NPO status, which typically restricts oral intake.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Tell the client he can no longer have any more pain medication: This is not appropriate. The client’s severe pain needs to be managed, but the current vital signs suggest a need for careful evaluation before administration.
B. Notify the prescribing physician: This is the correct choice. The client's blood pressure and respiratory rate are significantly low, which could be exacerbated by morphine. The physician needs to be informed to reassess pain management and possibly adjust the treatment.
C. Administer half the dose of morphine, 2 mg IV: Given the client's low blood pressure and respiratory rate, any morphine administration could worsen these issues. Adjusting the dose without physician guidance is not appropriate.
D. Administer 4 mg of morphine IV as ordered: Administering the full dose without addressing the client’s low blood pressure and respiratory rate could lead to severe complications.

A. Vomiting B. Tachycardia C. Deep rapid breathing D. Watery diarrhea

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Vomiting: Vomiting is a common symptom associated with metabolic acidosis but is not a compensatory mechanism. It can lead to further electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
B. Tachycardia: Tachycardia can occur as a response to acidosis but is not a direct compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis.
C. Deep rapid breathing: This is the correct choice. Deep rapid breathing, or Kussmaul respirations, is a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. It helps to expel carbon dioxide, thereby reducing acidity in the blood.
D. Watery diarrhea: Diarrhea can contribute to electrolyte imbalances and may exacerbate acidosis but is not a compensatory response by the body.

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A client is scheduled for surgery at 0800 and has been NPO (nothing by mouth) since midnight. They have been taking long-term oral steroids and are scheduled for their routine dose of Prednisone 30 mg PO to be administered at 0600. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client indicates to the nurse a pain level of 8 out of 10. The nurse notes the client has an order for morphine 4 mg IV Q 6 hr PRN for moderate to severe pain. The client's blood pressure is 80/54 mm Hg, respirations 10 breaths/min, and pulse 62 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus develops metabolic acidosis. Which assessment finding related to the imbalance indicates that the client's compensatory mechanisms are working?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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