A client needs 5 liters of oxygen. Which of the following devices is appropriate for use with an oxygen flow rate of 5 liters? Select all that apply:
High-flow nasal cannula
Simple face mask
Nasal cannula
Non-rebreather mask
Venturi mask
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A Reason: High-flow nasal cannula
The high-flow nasal cannula (HFNC) is designed to deliver oxygen at flow rates much higher than 5 liters per minute, typically ranging from 20 to 60 liters per minute. It is used for patients requiring high levels of oxygen and positive airway pressure. Therefore, it is not appropriate for a flow rate of 5 liters per minute.
Choice B Reason: Simple face mask
The simple face mask is suitable for delivering oxygen at flow rates between 6 to 10 liters per minute. However, it can also be used at a flow rate of 5 liters per minute, providing an FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) of approximately 40-60%. This makes it an appropriate choice for the given requirement.
Choice C Reason: Nasal cannula
The nasal cannula is a low-flow oxygen delivery device that can deliver oxygen at flow rates from 1 to 6 liters per minute. At 5 liters per minute, it provides an FiO2 of approximately 40%. It is comfortable for patients and is commonly used for those who need a moderate amount of supplemental oxygen.
Choice D Reason: Non-rebreather mask
The non-rebreather mask is designed to deliver high concentrations of oxygen, typically at flow rates of 10 to 15 liters per minute. It is used in situations where patients need a high FiO2, close to 100%. Therefore, it is not suitable for a flow rate of 5 liters per minute.
Choice E Reason: Venturi mask
The Venturi mask is used to deliver precise oxygen concentrations, typically ranging from 24% to 60% FiO2. It is suitable for patients who require controlled oxygen therapy. While it can be adjusted to deliver oxygen at a flow rate of 5 liters per minute, it is generally used for more specific FiO2 requirements.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Administering levetiracetam intravenously is not the first intervention. While levetiracetam is an antiepileptic drug used to control seizures, it is not the first-line treatment for an ongoing seizure, especially one lasting as long as 15 minutes. The priority in this situation is to stop the seizure activity immediately to prevent further complications, such as neuronal damage or status epilepticus. Levetiracetam may be used later for maintenance therapy, but it is not the initial emergency intervention.
Choice B Reason:
Obtaining a STAT electroencephalogram (EEG) is important for diagnosing and understanding the type of seizure activity, but it is not the first intervention. The immediate priority is to stop the seizure. An EEG can be performed after the seizure has been controlled to assess brain activity and guide further treatment. Delaying the administration of an anticonvulsant to perform an EEG could result in prolonged seizure activity and increased risk of complications.
Choice C Reason:
Administering lorazepam intravenously is the most appropriate first intervention. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizure activity. It is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus and prolonged seizures because of its rapid onset and effectiveness. Administering lorazepam helps to quickly terminate the seizure, reducing the risk of complications and stabilizing the patient for further evaluation and treatment.
Choice D Reason:
Obtaining a STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is not the first intervention. While an ECG can provide valuable information about the patient’s cardiac status, it does not address the immediate need to stop the seizure. The priority is to administer an anticonvulsant to terminate the seizure. Once the seizure is controlled, an ECG can be performed to assess any potential cardiac issues, especially if the patient has a history of cardiac problems or if the seizure was triggered by a cardiac event.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Occasional palpitations are a common symptom of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with a non-sustained ventricular response. Palpitations are sensations of a rapid, fluttering, or pounding heartbeat, which occur due to the irregular and fast heart rate characteristic of SVT. These palpitations can be intermittent and may vary in intensity, often causing discomfort and anxiety in patients.
Choice B Reason:
Weakness can be associated with SVT, but it is not as specific or common as palpitations. Weakness may occur due to the reduced cardiac output and decreased perfusion to the muscles during episodes of rapid heart rate. However, it is not the primary symptom that nurses would anticipate in patients with SVT.
Choice C Reason:
Shortness of breath is another symptom that can occur with SVT, especially during prolonged episodes. The rapid heart rate can lead to decreased efficiency in blood circulation, causing the patient to feel breathless. While shortness of breath is a significant symptom, palpitations are more directly associated with the diagnosis of SVT.
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