A client on an inpatient psychiatric unit yells "My roommate is Satan's crafty minion" and attempts to strangle him. The patient is refusing redirection. What medication should the nurse expect the on-call provider to order?
Haloperidol (Haldol).
Hydroxyzine (Vistaril).
Valproate (Depakote).
Lithium carbonate (Lithobid).
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, blocks dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway, rapidly reducing agitation and psychosis-driven aggression in schizophrenia. This addresses the acute delusional behavior and amygdala hyperactivity, making it the preferred choice for immediate control.
Choice B reason: Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, reduces anxiety via histamine and mild anticholinergic effects but lacks antipsychotic properties. It cannot address dopamine-driven delusions or aggression in schizophrenia, making it ineffective for controlling acute psychotic agitation.
Choice C reason: Valproate stabilizes mood in bipolar disorder via GABA enhancement but is not indicated for acute psychotic aggression. Schizophrenia’s dopamine excess requires rapid receptor blockade, which valproate cannot provide, making it unsuitable for this scenario.
Choice D reason: Lithium stabilizes mood in bipolar disorder by modulating sodium channels and inositol, not acute psychosis. Schizophrenia’s mesolimbic dopamine hyperactivity requires antipsychotic intervention, making lithium ineffective for controlling delusional aggression in this acute situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Suicide in depression is linked to low serotonin, impairing prefrontal cortex regulation and increasing impulsivity. SSRIs increase serotonin, stabilizing amygdala-prefrontal circuits, reducing suicidal ideation by enhancing mood regulation and impulse control, making them the first-line treatment.
Choice B reason: Atypical antipsychotics target dopamine and serotonin receptors for psychosis or mania, not primary suicide risk. Depression-related suicide stems from serotonin deficits, and antipsychotics are less effective for this neurochemical profile, making them inappropriate as first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Mood stabilizers like lithium address bipolar mood swings, not primary depression-related suicide. Serotonin dysregulation drives suicidal behavior in depression, and stabilizers lack direct serotonin enhancement, making them less effective than SSRIs for this indication.
Choice D reason: Tricyclic antidepressants increase serotonin and norepinephrine but have higher side effect risks, like cardiotoxicity, compared to SSRIs. Serotonin deficits drive suicide risk, and SSRIs are safer and more effective for targeting this neurochemical imbalance in depression.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This response dismisses the patient’s cognitive distortion without engaging in therapeutic exploration. Major depressive disorder involves negative cognitive biases due to altered serotonin and dopamine signaling in the prefrontal cortex, impairing rational attribution of causality. This choice fails to facilitate cognitive restructuring, missing the opportunity to address neurocognitive mechanisms underlying overgeneralization.
Choice B reason: This response uses cognitive-behavioral techniques to challenge overgeneralization, a distortion linked to dysfunctional prefrontal cortex activity and low serotonin levels in depression. Examining a specific event encourages re-evaluation of faulty attributions, promoting neuroplasticity through cognitive restructuring, which can enhance rational thinking and reduce depressive symptoms by altering maladaptive neural pathways.
Choice C reason: This response shifts focus to cultural beliefs, irrelevant to the patient’s cognitive distortion. Depression involves altered amygdala-prefrontal cortex interactions, leading to negative self-attribution. Exploring cultural heritage does not address serotonin deficiency or facilitate cognitive reframing, making it ineffective for correcting overgeneralized thinking driven by neurochemical imbalances.
Choice D reason: This response acknowledges self-criticism but fails to engage in active cognitive restructuring. Depression involves hyperactive amygdala responses and reduced prefrontal inhibition, perpetuating negative self-perceptions. Without guiding the patient to explore alternative explanations, this choice misses the chance to alter maladaptive neural pathways, limiting its therapeutic impact on distorted thinking.
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