A client presents to the medical surgical unit.
Which of the following findings requires further action by the nurse? Select all that apply.
Pain rating
Lung assessment
Pupils
Facial nerve assessment
Vertigo
Diminished hearing
Correct Answer : D,E
D. Facial nerve assessment: The development of left facial droop and asymmetry postoperatively suggests potential facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) injury during the stapedectomy. This requires immediate evaluation to determine if it is temporary due to surgical manipulation or a sign of nerve damage.
E. Vertigo: Postoperative vertigo and nausea are common but should be monitored closely because stapedectomy involves inner ear structures responsible for balance. Persistent or worsening vertigo may indicate inner ear trauma or perilymphatic fistula, requiring further assessment.
Incorrect:
A. Pain rating: Pain is expected after surgery and can be managed with prescribed analgesics.
B. Lung assessment: Bilateral clear breath sounds do not indicate respiratory distress or complications.
C. Pupils: The slight decrease in pupil size (3.5 mm to 3 mm) is not clinically significant and remains within normal limits.
F. Diminished hearing: Hearing loss is expected post-stapedectomy due to packing in the ear and middle ear healing. Improvement typically occurs over weeks.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
Explanation
The nurse anticipates the client will likely require blood transfusion as evidenced by the client’s low hemoglobin and low hematocrit.
Rationale:
(i)
B. Blood transfusion: The client’s hemoglobin (9.1 g/dL) and hematocrit (27%) are significantly low, suggesting anemia due to gastrointestinal blood loss. A blood transfusion may be necessary to restore adequate oxygen-carrying capacity and prevent further hemodynamic instability.
(ii)
C. Low hemoglobin: A hemoglobin level below normal indicates blood loss, likely from a bleeding peptic ulcer. This finding supports the need for intervention to prevent further complications such as hypoxia or shock.
F. Low hematocrit: A low hematocrit confirms anemia and blood volume depletion. This finding, along with the client's symptoms and history of dark, tarry stools, further supports the need for a blood transfusion.
Incorrect:
(i)
A. Proton pump inhibitor therapy: While PPIs are essential for ulcer management, they do not immediately address acute blood loss
C. Antibiotic therapy: Antibiotics are needed to eradicate H. pylori, but they are not the primary intervention for anemia.
D. Surgical intervention: Surgery is considered only if bleeding is severe and refractory to medical management.
E. Intravenous fluid resuscitation: IV fluids can help stabilize blood pressure but do not directly correct anemia.
(ii)
A. Elevated white blood cell count: The client’s WBC count is normal, making it irrelevant to this scenario.
B. Positive H. pylori test: While H. pylori is the likely cause of the ulcer, this result does not directly indicate the need for a blood transfusion.
D. Epigastric tenderness: This is a symptom of peptic ulcer disease but does not directly relate to the need for a blood transfusion.
E. Dark, tarry stools: While indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, the direct lab evidence of anemia (low hemoglobin and hematocrit) is more critical in determining the need for transfusion.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
A. "I can expect my contact lenses to turn red or orange.”
Rifampin causes red-orange discoloration of body fluids, including tears, sweat, urine, and saliva. This effect is harmless but can stain soft contact lenses permanently, so clients should be advised to use glasses instead.
B. “I should notify my provider if I start taking new over-the-counter or prescription medications.”
Rifampin is a potent enzyme inducer that can alter the metabolism of many drugs, including oral contraceptives and anticoagulants. The provider should be informed of any new medications to avoid potential drug interactions and ensure therapeutic effectiveness.
C. “I will need to have someone observe me when I take my medication.”
Directly observed therapy (DOT) is recommended to ensure adherence to tuberculosis treatment. A healthcare provider or designated individual supervises medication intake to improve compliance and reduce the risk of drug resistance.
D. “I will need to have a repeat Mantoux test in 4 weeks.”
A repeat Mantoux test is unnecessary for diagnosing active tuberculosis, as this condition is confirmed through sputum cultures and chest X-ray findings. Mantoux testing is primarily used for screening latent TB infections.
E. “I am no longer contagious.”
Clients with active tuberculosis remain contagious until they complete at least two weeks of effective multidrug therapy and show clinical improvement. Until then, infection control measures such as respiratory isolation should be followed.
F. “I will need to take my medications for a total of 6 weeks.”
The standard treatment for active tuberculosis lasts at least six months, typically involving a four-drug regimen for the first two months, followed by two drugs for the remaining four months. A six-week course is insufficient for eradication.
G. "I can continue my current alcohol intake."
Alcohol should be avoided due to the hepatotoxic effects of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Combining alcohol with these medications increases the risk of liver damage, requiring clients to abstain or limit intake.
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