A client suffering from depression presents to the healthcare setting for pharmacologic treatment. Which of the following medications would be considered the first-line treatment for depression?
risperidone (Risperdal)
haloperidol (Haldol)
paroxetine (Paxil)
clozapine (Clozaril)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic primarily used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not first-line treatment for depression.
B. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic used mainly for acute psychosis and agitation, not for treating depression.
C. Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is widely recognized as a first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy and relatively favorable side effect profile.
D. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and is not indicated for the treatment of depression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Beta blockers are used to manage blood pressure and heart rate but are not effective in reducing niacin-induced flushing.
B. Calcium channel blockers help to relax blood vessels but do not address the flushing side effect caused by niacin.
C. NSAIDs, like aspirin, can help reduce the flushing associated with niacin. This flushing occurs due to prostaglandin release, which NSAIDs can inhibit.
D. While fibric acid derivatives are used to lower cholesterol, they do not alleviate the flushing side effect of niacin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Diarrhea is not a direct risk of stopping TPN abruptly.
B. Abruptly stopping TPN can cause hypoglycemia because the high glucose content in TPN leads to increased insulin production. Without the continuous glucose infusion, blood sugar levels can drop rapidly.
C. Hypovolemia is not a common outcome from stopping TPN suddenly.
D. Erythema at the site is unrelated to the cessation of TPN and more commonly related to local site reactions or infection.
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