A client suffering from depression presents to the healthcare setting for pharmacologic treatment. Which of the following medications would be considered the first-line treatment for depression?
risperidone (Risperdal)
haloperidol (Haldol)
paroxetine (Paxil)
clozapine (Clozaril)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic primarily used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not first-line treatment for depression.
B. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic used mainly for acute psychosis and agitation, not for treating depression.
C. Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is widely recognized as a first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy and relatively favorable side effect profile.
D. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and is not indicated for the treatment of depression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Epinephrine is primarily used for anaphylaxis and severe asthma attacks; it is not effective in reversing opioid overdose.
B. Protamine is an antidote for heparin, not for opioid overdose.
C. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is not indicated for opioid overdose; it can potentially precipitate seizures in patients with mixed drug overdoses.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist specifically indicated for reversing the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.
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