The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client experiencing atrial fibrillation. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would the nurse assess to reduce the incidence of toxicity with digoxin (Lanoxin)?

hypocalcemia

hypokalemia

hyperkalemia

hypernatremia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Hypocalcemia is not directly linked to digoxin toxicity; rather, it is more associated with calcium channel blockers.

B. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as low potassium levels can enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart.

C. Hyperkalemia is not directly associated with toxicity; however, it can cause complications in patients taking digoxin.

D. Hypernatremia does not have a direct impact on digoxin toxicity; monitoring potassium levels is more critical.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Explanation

aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) is the primary lab test used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa, thus prolonging the aPTT. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is therapeutic and reduces the risk of bleeding.

PT-INR (Prothrombin Time - International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which affects the prothrombin time (PT). The INR standardizes PT results, allowing for consistent monitoring of anticoagulation status. It is critical to maintain the INR within the therapeutic range to balance the risk of thrombosis against the risk of bleeding.

A. "Place one tablet under your tongue every 15 minutes and repeat up to 5 times for relief of chest pain B. "This medication is the first line treatment for hypertension" C. "This medication decreases chest pain by dissolving blood clots that are occluding the arteries." D. "This medication dilates cardiac blood vessels to deliver more oxygen to the heart."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While the administration schedule is partly correct, the maximum number of doses should not exceed 3 in 15 minutes without contacting emergency services.

B. Nitroglycerin is not a first-line treatment for hypertension; it is primarily used for angina relief.

C. Nitroglycerin does not dissolve clots; it works by relaxing and dilating blood vessels to improve blood flow and reduce chest pain.

D. This statement accurately describes the action of nitroglycerin, emphasizing its role in dilating blood vessels and improving oxygen delivery to the heart muscle.

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The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client experiencing atrial fibrillation. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would the nurse assess to reduce the incidence of toxicity with digoxin (Lanoxin)?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the antagonist action of reversal medications. For each medication listed below, click to specify the expected reversal agent.

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