The nurse is caring for a client with swelling to the distal phalanges, first big toe, and 10/10 pain. Which medication below would be administered for this client's acute gout?

allopurinol

febuxostat

colchicine

physostigmine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used for chronic gout management and prevention, not for acute attacks.
B. Febuxostat is also used for chronic management of gout and not effective for immediate relief of an acute attack.
C. Colchicine is indicated for the treatment of acute gout flares as it helps reduce inflammation and pain associated with gout attacks.
D. Physostigmine is an antidote for anticholinergic toxicity and has no role in treating gout.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. PT/INR is not the appropriate measure for heparin therapy, as heparin is monitored using activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This response could mislead the client regarding treatment expectations.
B. While it may take time to reach therapeutic levels, this statement doesn't clarify that heparin is not a clot-dissolving agent.
C. Heparin prevents the extension of existing clots and the formation of new clots but does not actively dissolve clots already present.
D. This statement incorrectly suggests that immediate effects are seen, which is not the case as heparin's action involves prevention rather than dissolution.

A. The client has a BMI of >30 B. The client is currently taking Ginger C. The client has a history of hypertension D. The client has no intention of conceiving within the year

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.

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The nurse is caring for a client with swelling to the distal phalanges, first big toe, and 10/10 pain. Which medication below would be administered for this client's acute gout?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP) for contraceptive prevention. Which contraindication associated with POP would the nurse alert the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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