A client who usually is very active in her therapy group tells the nurse that she really does "not feel well today" and would "rather not attend the group therapy session. Which is the nurse's most appropriate response?

It's okay to skip the session but the others will get ideas.

will just stay with you for a while.

You don't feel like attending the group therapy today?"

Why don't you want to attend group therapy?"

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   This response is dismissive and doesn't address the client's feelings. It also implies that the client's absence will negatively impact the group, which is not helpful.
B.   While this shows empathy, it doesn't address the client's reason for not wanting to attend the group.
C.   This response acknowledges the client's feelings without being judgmental and opens a space for further communication.
D.   This question might put the client on the defensive and can be perceived as challenging. It's important to create a safe and supportive environment for the client to express their feelings.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Suicide rates do differ by gender and age but the statement about fathers and mothers does not align with typical statistics. Fathers and mothers are not usually the primary focus of such comparisons.
B. Statistics show that while women attempt suicide more frequently than men, men are more likely to complete suicide. This is often attributed to the methods used, as men typically choose more lethal means, resulting in higher completion rates.
C. Adolescent mothers and fathers are not typically the groups compared in this context. The frequency and success of suicide attempts are generally analyzed with a broader demographic perspective, not specifically focused on adolescent parents.
D. Adult men are more likely to complete suicide, but women generally attempt suicide more frequently than men. The completion rate for suicide is higher among men compared to women.

A. reduce symptoms and inappropriate behaviors B. help the client to adjust to antidepressants. C. develop a plan for treatment. D. reduce uncooperative behaviors.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. This is the primary goal of the first phase of depression treatment. It focuses on stabilizing the client's condition and alleviating the most distressing symptoms, such as sadness, loss of interest, and changes in sleep and appetite.
B. While medication is often part of the treatment plan, it's not the primary focus of the initial phase. The goal is to address the symptoms first.
C. This is more relevant to the later stages of treatment when the client's condition has stabilized.
D. This is too narrow a focus. The goal is to address the underlying depression and its associated symptoms, not just specific behaviors.

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A client who usually is very active in her therapy group tells the nurse that she really does "not feel well today" and would "rather not attend the group therapy session. Which is the nurse's most appropriate response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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