A client who weighs 45kg is ordered to receive 500 mg of amoxicillin every eight hours. The dosing range noted in the Davis Drug Guide is 20 to 40 mg/kg/day divided and to be given every 8 hours. True or False: the client's dose is safe and therapeutic?
True
False
The Correct Answer is A
To determine if the client's dose is safe and therapeutic, we need to calculate the appropriate dosing range based on the client's weight and compare it with the ordered dose.
Client's weight: 45 kg
Ordered dose: 500 mg every 8 hours, which equals 1500 mg/day (500 mg × 3 doses).
Calculate the therapeutic range:
The dosing range in the Davis Drug Guide is 20 to 40 mg/kg/day. So, for this client, based on their weight of 45 kg:
Minimum dose: 20 mg × 45 kg = 900 mg/day
Maximum dose: 40 mg × 45 kg = 1800 mg/day
The ordered dose of 1500 mg/day falls within this range (900 mg/day to 1800 mg/day), which means it is safe and therapeutic for the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) "I will avoid alcohol and cigarettes.": This is a correct and important statement for a client with GERD. Both alcohol and cigarettes can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, increasing the likelihood of acid reflux and exacerbating GERD symptoms. Avoiding these substances is a standard recommendation for managing GERD.
B) "I will have a small snack right before bedtime.": This statement indicates the need for additional education. Eating a meal or snack right before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms because lying down after eating can increase the likelihood of acid reflux. It is generally recommended for clients with GERD to avoid eating at least 2-3 hours before going to bed to reduce the risk of reflux.
C) "I will wear loose fitting clothes.": Wearing loose-fitting clothes is an appropriate measure for managing GERD. Tight clothing around the abdomen can increase pressure on the stomach, promoting acid reflux. Loose clothing helps avoid this additional pressure, which can alleviate symptoms.
D) "I will take all NSAIDs and steroids with food.": This is generally good advice for reducing the risk of stomach irritation caused by NSAIDs and steroids, which can worsen GERD symptoms or cause gastric ulcers. Taking these medications with food can help buffer the stomach lining and reduce irritation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider is concerned you will become addicted: While it is true that opioids have the potential for addiction, this response does not address the actual reason for the difference in morphine dosages. The provider's decision is likely based on the pharmacokinetics of the drug rather than a concern about addiction. This response could create unnecessary concern for the client and does not explain the dose discrepancy.
B) Morphine is highly bound to protein in your blood, and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery: While morphine is protein-bound, the primary reason for the difference in the intravenous (IV) dose is not related to protein binding. The main difference is related to the route of administration and how the body processes the drug. The nurse should provide a more accurate explanation regarding the absorption and metabolism of morphine rather than focusing on protein binding or potential toxicity.
C) "Morphine taken by mouth passes through the liver, and some of the medication is made inactive": This is the best response. When morphine is taken orally, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and passes through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, a process known as the "first-pass effect." During this process, a portion of the drug is metabolized and rendered inactive, meaning that a higher oral dose is required to achieve the desired effect. When morphine is administered intravenously, it bypasses the liver and directly enters the bloodstream, leading to a more immediate and potent effect, which is why a lower dose is needed.
D) "The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low and adjusts the dose up as needed": While this is a valid approach to opioid prescribing, it doesn't fully explain why the client is receiving a smaller dose intravenously. The reason for the dose difference is based on the route of administration and the pharmacokinetic properties of the drug, not just a general cautious approach. This answer doesn't provide a clear explanation of why the IV dose is smaller.
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