A client with a cervical spinal injury (C7) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should first assess the client for which precipitating factor?
An acutely distended bladder.
Profuse forehead diaphoresis.
Skeletal traction misalignment.
A severe pounding headache.
The Correct Answer is A
A. One of the most common triggers is a distended bladder. When the bladder becomes full, it sends signals to the spinal cord, but due to the injury, these signals are unable to pass beyond the level of injury. This results in uncontrolled sympathetic activation, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, sweating, and headache.
B. Forehead diaphoresis, or sweating, is a potential symptom of autonomic dysreflexia. However, it is more of a consequence rather than a precipitating factor. It occurs as a result of sympathetic nervous system activation in response to the triggering stimulus.
C. Skeletal traction misalignment is not a common precipitating factor for autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is typically triggered by stimuli related to visceral or autonomic reflexes, such as bladder distention or bowel impaction, rather than mechanical issues like traction misalignment.
D. A severe pounding headache can occur as a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia, but it is not the primary precipitating factor. The headache is a result of the sudden increase in blood pressure that occurs during autonomic dysreflexia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the kidneys. Elevated serum creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function. Since contrast agents can affect renal function, a serum creatinine level above the reference range should be reported to the healthcare provider before the MRI with contrast.
A. While elevated blood sugar levels may indicate diabetes or poor glycemic control, they are not directly related to kidney function or the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Therefore, this value is not the most pertinent for reporting before an MRI with contrast.
C.Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months and is used to assess long-term glycemic control in diabetes. While elevated HbA1c levels suggest poor diabetes management, they do not directly assess kidney function or the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy.
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels reflect the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can indicate kidney function. Elevated BUN levels may suggest impaired renal function. However, an elevated serum creatinine is a more reliable marker for renal excretion.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Releasing traction to use a bedpan may cause pain and discomfort to the client and risk exacerbating the fracture or compromising the alignment needed for surgery.
B. Log rolling the client and placing adult disposable briefs beneath them may not be suitable because it involves movement that can disrupt traction and worsen the client's pain.
Additionally, disposable briefs may not adequately manage urinary output, especially for a client awaiting surgery.
C.While using a catheter can be an option, it is generally not the first intervention unless the client is unable to void by other means or has a specific indication for catheterization. It carries risks, including infection, and should be considered carefully.
D. The nurse can assist the client in using a urinal while ensuring that traction is maintained. This allows the client to urinate without disrupting the traction setup, minimizing the risk of complications associated with the fracture.
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