A client with a hiatal hernia is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which explanation by the nurse best describes the purpose of this medication?

"It strengthens the lower esophageal sphincter to prevent herniation."

"It reduces the amount of acid your stomach produces"

"It helps move food through your digestive tract more quickly."

"It neutralizes the acid in your stomach after meals."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale:
A. Omeprazole does not strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter; it reduces acid production to relieve symptoms associated with acid reflux.
B. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that works by reducing gastric acid secretion, helping to relieve symptoms like heartburn and esophageal irritation caused by hiatal hernia.
C. Moving food more quickly through the GI tract is the role of prokinetic agents, not PPIs.
D. Neutralizing stomach acid is the action of antacids, not omeprazole.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Encouraging ambulation and fluids may help, but the low urine output (oliguria) over 3 hours warrants assessment of bladder distention first to rule out urinary retention.
B. Checking the bladder for distention is the most appropriate immediate action, as urinary retention is a common postoperative complication that can cause pain and reduced output. The healthcare provider should be notified if retention is present.
C. Increasing fluids alone without assessment may delay necessary intervention.
D. Administering pain medication without assessing the cause of decreased output may mask symptoms and delay diagnosis of urinary retention or other complications.

A. Osteomyelitis B. Septicemia C. Phantom pain D. Avascular necrosis

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Osteomyelitis is a bone infection, more commonly associated with open fractures or post-surgical complications, not typically a preoperative concern with closed femoral neck fractures.
B. Septicemia (blood infection) is possible but not a primary complication of a closed hip fracture before surgery.
C. Phantom pain is associated with amputations, not hip fractures.
D. Avascular necrosis is a significant risk with femoral neck fractures due to compromised blood supply to the femoral head. Without adequate blood flow, bone tissue can die, leading to joint dysfunction and chronic pain.

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A client with a hiatal hernia is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which explanation by the nurse best describes the purpose of this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours post-hysterectomy. The client is experiencing moderate abdominal pain and is requesting pain medication. The nurse notices the client's urinary output is 45 mL over the past 3 hours. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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