A client with a medical diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is being placed in the prone position. The nurse explains to family members that, "This will help improve ventilation by:
allowing undamaged areas in the lower part of the lungs to be ventilated."
relieving pressure on the diaphragm and allowing expansion."
decreasing pressure to the back of the rib cage."
snifting fluid into the back area of the lungs.'
The Correct Answer is A
A. Allowing undamaged areas in the lower part of the lungs to be ventilated: The prone position is commonly used in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) to improve oxygenation and ventilation. In ARDS, the lung tissue is often damaged, particularly in the dorsal (back) regions of the lungs, due to gravity and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. By placing the patient in the prone position, gravity helps redistribute the blood flow and improve ventilation to the posterior (lower) parts of the lungs, which are typically under-ventilated in the supine position. This positioning allows healthier or less-damaged areas of the lungs to receive better airflow, improving overall oxygenation.
B. Relieving pressure on the diaphragm and allowing expansion: While the prone position does shift pressure away from certain areas, its primary benefit is not related to relieving pressure on the diaphragm. The diaphragm, while somewhat affected by body position, is not the key structure being targeted for ventilation improvement. The main goal of prone positioning is to improve lung aeration in areas affected by ARDS, not directly to relieve diaphragm pressure.
C. Decreasing pressure to the back of the rib cage: The prone position does not specifically target reducing pressure to the back of the rib cage. Although it changes how pressure is distributed across the body, the main goal is to facilitate better ventilation and perfusion to the posterior lung regions, not necessarily to reduce pressure on the rib cage itself.
D. Sniffing fluid into the back area of the lungs: This option is unclear and not accurate. The prone position does not "sniff" fluid into the lungs; rather, it helps to redistribute fluid and improve the ventilation of the lung areas that are less affected by edema or inflammation in ARDS. The goal is to improve the ventilation/perfusion ratio and prevent further collapse of lung tissue.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. pH 7.36, PaO2 98 mmHg, PaCO2 27 mmHg, HCO3 16 mEq/L, O2 sat 99%: This set of ABG results is consistent with fully compensated metabolic acidosis. pH 7.36: This is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating that compensation has occurred, as the pH has returned to normal levels. PaCO2 27 mmHg: The PaCO2 is low, suggesting that the respiratory system has compensated for the metabolic acidosis by increasing ventilation to excrete CO2, thus reducing the acid load. HCO3 16 mEq/L: The bicarbonate level is low, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis as the primary disturbance. The PaO2 and O2 saturation are normal, indicating adequate oxygenation. Since the pH is within the normal range and the PaCO2 and HCO3 levels reflect the compensatory changes needed to correct the metabolic acidosis, this is a case of fully compensated metabolic acidosis.
B. pH 7.47, PaO2 91 mmHg, PaCO2 52 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L, O2 sat 96%:
This result indicates alkalosis rather than acidosis. The pH is alkalotic (7.47), and PaCO2 is elevated (52 mmHg), which suggests respiratory acidosis as the primary disturbance. The HCO3 is also high (30 mEq/L), which is consistent with metabolic compensation for respiratory acidosis, not for metabolic acidosis. Therefore, this is not consistent with fully compensated metabolic acidosis.
C. pH 7.45, PaO2 86 mmHg, PaCO2 56 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L, O2 sat 94%:
The pH is normal, but PaCO2 is elevated (56 mmHg), indicating respiratory acidosis rather than metabolic acidosis. The HCO3 is also elevated (28 mEq/L), which is consistent with compensation for respiratory acidosis, not metabolic acidosis. This result suggests respiratory acidosis with compensated metabolic alkalosis rather than metabolic acidosis.
D. pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mmHg, PaCO2 54 mmHg, HCO3 29 mEq/L, O2 sat 94%:
The pH of 7.32 indicates acidosis, but it is not within the normal range, so this is not fully compensated. The PaCO2 is elevated (54 mmHg), indicating respiratory acidosis, and the HCO3 is elevated (29 mEq/L), showing metabolic compensation. However, since the pH has not yet returned to normal (it remains acidotic), this is an example of partially compensated respiratory acidosis, not fully compensated metabolic acidosis.
respiratory acidosis, not fully compensated metabolic acidosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.
C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.
D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.