Which of the following assessment findings in a client who is receiving atenolol for angina would be a cause for the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?

Recent intake of sildenafil

Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56

Restlessness and mild confusion

Positional vertigo and wheezing

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Recent intake of sildenafil:
While there is a potential drug interaction between atenolol (a beta-blocker) and sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction), this alone would not necessarily be an indication to hold atenolol. Sildenafil can cause hypotension, which might be exacerbated by atenolol, especially in older adults or those with cardiovascular issues. However, this interaction usually requires monitoring rather than immediate discontinuation of atenolol, unless the client is symptomatic (e.g., feeling faint, dizziness). If symptoms of hypotension occur after taking both medications, the nurse would assess the client's condition but would not automatically hold atenolol based solely on this information.

B. Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56: The most concerning finding in a client receiving atenolol (a beta-blocker) for angina is a heart rate of 52 beats per minute (bradycardia) and a blood pressure of 90/56 mmHg (hypotension). Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, work by reducing the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is below the typical threshold of 60 beats per minute and indicates bradycardia, which could worsen due to the medication's effects. Additionally, hypotension (blood pressure 90/56) can be dangerous, especially when combined with bradycardia. Both of these findings suggest that the client may be experiencing excessive beta-blockade, which could lead to severe complications such as cardiogenic shock or arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should hold the medication and contact the provider for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan.

C. Restlessness and mild confusion:
Restlessness and mild confusion could indicate several possible issues, such as hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. While beta-blockers can cause side effects like fatigue or depression, restlessness and confusion are not common acute reactions to atenolol. However, if these symptoms are due to hypotension or bradycardia from the atenolol, then holding the medication and notifying the provider may be warranted. Nonetheless, these symptoms alone are not a clear cause to immediately hold atenolol without further assessment.

D. Positional vertigo and wheezing:
Positional vertigo can occur due to a variety of causes, including inner ear issues, hypotension, or even medication side effects. Wheezing, however, raises concerns about potential bronchospasm, which is a known side effect of non-cardioselective beta-blockers. Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, meaning it is less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-cardioselective agents like propranolol. While wheezing could indicate a reaction to the medication, it is not a primary concern with atenolol, unless the client has a history of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). If wheezing occurs, the nurse should still monitor the client but would not necessarily hold atenolol immediately unless the symptoms are severe.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Schedule activities late in the day and in the evening:

Scheduling activities late in the day is not an ideal approach for managing fatigue in clients with MS. Fatigue typically worsens as the day progresses, and clients with MS often experience more energy depletion in the late afternoon and evening. Therefore, the best time to schedule demanding activities is earlier in the day when the client may have more energy. Scheduling strenuous tasks late in the day may exacerbate fatigue and lead to physical and emotional exhaustion.

B. Provide supplemental oxygen when fatigued:

While oxygen therapy is appropriate for clients with respiratory issues or other conditions that affect oxygenation, it is not the most relevant intervention for addressing fatigue in MS. Fatigue in MS is primarily caused by neurological factors, muscle weakness, or impaired mobility, not by a lack of oxygen. The priority for MS-related fatigue is managing energy levels through activity planning and rest, not providing supplemental oxygen unless there is a specific indication of respiratory distress or hypoxia.

C. Teach the importance of hot showers to help relax:

Hot showers may help some individuals relax, but they are not the best intervention for managing fatigue in MS. In fact, heat can sometimes worsen symptoms in clients with MS, a phenomenon known as Uhthoff’s phenomenon, where heat increases neurological symptoms such as muscle weakness, fatigue, or visual disturbances. It is important to educate clients to avoid overheating, which could exacerbate fatigue or other symptoms. Instead, clients should focus on rest, energy conservation, and temperature regulation.

D. Have the client prioritize activities for the day: Fatigue is a common and debilitating symptom in clients with multiple sclerosis (MS), and it can significantly affect their daily functioning. One of the most effective interventions for managing fatigue in MS is to encourage the client to prioritize activities and manage their energy levels throughout the day. By scheduling the most important or demanding tasks earlier in the day when energy levels tend to be higher, clients can conserve energy for essential activities. Additionally, teaching clients to break tasks into smaller, manageable steps and incorporating frequent rest periods can help minimize fatigue and prevent overexertion. Prioritizing activities ensures that the client is not overwhelmed and can still maintain independence while managing their symptoms effectively.

A. reports taking an extra dose each day of their anticholinesterase medication. B. is experiencing a respiratory infection and is short of breath. C. has a family history of autoimmune disorders. D. has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "Reports taking an extra dose each day of their anticholinesterase medication."
This client is at highest risk for developing a cholinergic crisis. A cholinergic crisis occurs when there is overdose or excessive stimulation of acetylcholine receptors due to too much anticholinesterase medication. Symptoms include muscle weakness, respiratory distress, salivation, sweating, and bradycardia. Taking an extra dose of the medication can result in an overdose of acetylcholine, triggering these symptoms. Therefore, this client is at the greatest risk for a cholinergic crisis.

B. "Is experiencing a respiratory infection and is short of breath."
While respiratory infections can worsen symptoms of myasthenia gravis due to increased muscle weakness, this client is not directly at risk for a cholinergic crisis. Respiratory infections can increase the risk of myasthenic crisis, which is a different complication where muscle weakness worsens to the point of respiratory failure. A myasthenic crisis is caused by insufficient anticholinesterase medication or a disease exacerbation, not an overdose.

C. "Has a family history of autoimmune disorders."
A family history of autoimmune disorders may suggest a genetic predisposition to autoimmune diseases, but it does not increase the risk of a cholinergic crisis specifically. The risk of a cholinergic crisis is more directly related to medication management, not family history.

D. "Has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus."
Type 2 diabetes mellitus does not directly increase the risk of a cholinergic crisis. While diabetes may influence overall health and immune function, it does not have a direct impact on anticholinesterase therapy or the risk of cholinergic crisis in myasthenia gravis.

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Which of the following assessment findings in a client who is receiving atenolol for angina would be a cause for the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which of the following clients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis would the nurse identify as most at risk for developing a cholinergic crisis? A client who

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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