A client with a seizure disorder is seen at the clinic for a follow-up visit and a prescription renewal for phenytoin. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Blood pressure 100/78 mm Hg.
Double vision.
Puffy, bleeding gums.
Chronic insomnia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is not an assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Blood pressure 100/78 mm Hg is within the normal range for an adult, and it does not indicate any adverse effect of phenytoin. The nurse should monitor the blood pressure for any changes, but it is not a priority.
Choice B reason: This is an assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Double vision, or diplopia, is a sign of phenytoin toxicity, which can occur due to overdose, drug interactions, or impaired metabolism. Double vision can impair the client's vision, balance, and coordination, and increase the risk of falls and injuries. The nurse should stop the phenytoin infusion, if applicable, and notify the healthcare provider. The nurse should also check the serum phenytoin level and other vital signs, and prepare to administer an antidote, such as fosphenytoin, if indicated.
Choice C reason: This is not an assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Puffy, bleeding gums are a common side effect of phenytoin, which can cause gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gum tissue. Puffy, bleeding gums are not life-threatening, but they can affect the client's oral hygiene and appearance. The nurse should instruct the client to brush and floss the teeth regularly, and to visit a dentist for dental care.
Choice D reason: This is not an assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Chronic insomnia is not a common or serious side effect of phenytoin, which is an anticonvulsant that can have sedative effects. Chronic insomnia may be caused by other factors, such as stress, pain, or caffeine intake. The nurse should assess the client's sleep pattern and quality, and provide education and counseling on sleep hygiene and relaxation techniques.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Employed as a construction worker is not the most important assessment finding for the nurse to address. Although the client's occupation may expose them to moist and warm environments that can promote fungal growth, it is not directly related to the administration of terbinafine HCL. The nurse should advise the client to wear breathable shoes and socks and keep the feet dry and clean, but it is not a priority.
Choice B reason: Reported history of alcoholism is the most important assessment finding for the nurse to address. Terbinafine HCL can cause hepatotoxicity, especially in clients with pre-existing liver disease or who consume alcohol regularly. The nurse should assess the client's liver function tests and alcohol intake before starting the medication and inform the prescriber accordingly. The nurse should also monitor the client for signs and symptoms of liver damage, such as jaundice, abdominal pain, nausea, or fatigue.
Choice C reason: White blood cell count of 8,500/mm3 (8.5 x 10^9/L) is not the most important assessment finding for the nurse to address. This value is within the normal reference range of 5,000 to 10,000/mm3 (5 to 10 x 10^9/L) and does not indicate any infection or inflammation. The nurse should check the client's baseline blood counts before starting the medication, but it is not a priority.
Choice D reason: Toenails appear thick and yellow is not the most important assessment finding for the nurse to address. This is a typical manifestation of a fungal toenail infection, which is the indication for terbinafine HCL. The nurse should expect the toenails to improve in appearance and texture after the completion of the treatment, which may take several weeks or months. The nurse should educate the client about the expected outcomes and adherence to the medication regimen, but it is not a priority.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Confirming that the daughter is aware of the progressive nature of the disease is not the best response, as it does not address the daughter's misconception about the drug. The nurse should educate the daughter that rivastigmine does not cure or stop the progression of Alzheimer's disease, but only slows down the cognitive decline.
Choice B reason: Affirming the decision to use the medication when the symptoms start to worsen is not appropriate, as it contradicts the evidence-based practice. The nurse should inform the daughter that rivastigmine is most effective when used in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease, as it can delay the need for institutionalization and improve the quality of life.
Choice C reason: Explaining that the drug should be used early in the course of the disease process is the best response, as it corrects the daughter's misunderstanding and provides accurate information. The nurse should explain that rivastigmine works by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in memory and learning. By increasing the level of acetylcholine in the brain, rivastigmine can improve the cognitive function and behavior of the client.
Choice D reason: Assessing the client's current mental status before deciding to support the decision is not relevant, as it does not address the daughter's concern or the rationale for the drug. The nurse should already have the client's baseline mental status from the initial assessment and diagnosis. The nurse should focus on educating the daughter about the benefits and risks of rivastigmine and encouraging her to follow the prescribed regimen.
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