A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted to the medical unit for testing. The client describes having had frequent episodes of angina over the last few days prior to admission. The client is now experiencing shortness of breath, nausea, and chest pressure. After obtaining the client's vital signs, which action should the nurse take next?

Verify troponin level assessments are scheduled every 3 to 6 hours for a series of three.

Initiate dim lighting, lower alarm volumes, and control traffic in and out of the room area.

Count and record the number of premature ventricular contractions per minute.

Apply oxygen via nasal cannula and titrate to keep oxygen saturation above 93%.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale

A. Troponin levels are cardiac biomarkers that are elevated in the blood when there is damage to the heart muscle, such as during a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Verifying the schedule for troponin assessments is important to monitor for myocardial damage and to guide treatment decisions.

B. This action is aimed at creating a quiet and calm environment for the client, which can help reduce anxiety and minimize stimuli that might exacerbate symptoms. Creating a conducive environment is beneficial for the client's comfort and well-being but should not delay urgent interventions required for acute symptoms.

C. PVCs are abnormal heartbeats that can occur in individuals with CAD and may indicate increased cardiac irritability or instability. While monitoring PVCs is important for assessing cardiac rhythm and potential complications, it is not the immediate priority over addressing acute symptoms such as shortness of breath, nausea, and chest pressure.

D. Oxygen therapy is essential in the management of a client with suspected ACS to improve oxygenation and reduce cardiac workload. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 93% helps ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, especially during episodes of chest discomfort and potential myocardial ischemia.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale

A. Green leafy vegetables do not interact with cefdinir. They are generally a healthy choice and can be encouraged without any concerns related to the antibiotic therapy.

B. Fresh fruits are also safe to consume with cefdinir. There are no interactions between fruits and this antibiotic.

C. Yogurt and buttermilk contain probiotics, which are beneficial bacteria that can help maintain gut health. Antibiotics like cefdinir can disrupt the normal gut flora, leading to diarrhea or other gastrointestinal issues. Consuming yogurt or buttermilk with live cultures may help replenish beneficial bacteria in the gut and reduce the risk of antibiotic-associated diarrhea.

D. Avocados and cheese are also safe choices. There are no specific interactions between these foods and cefdinir.

A. Dill pickles and black olives. B. Canned chicken broth with barley. C. Tomato juice and gluten free crackers. D. Plain baked sweet potato.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale

A. Dill pickles and black olives are typically high in sodium due to the pickling process. High sodium intake can exacerbate hypertension by increasing fluid retention and raising blood pressure.

B. Canned chicken broth often contains a high amount of sodium unless it is specifically labeled as low sodium or reduced sodium. Barley itself is a nutritious whole grain, but the sodium content in canned broth might counterbalance its benefits.

C. Tomato juice can be a good choice for someone with hypertension as long as it is low in sodium or sodium-free. Tomatoes are rich in potassium and other nutrients beneficial for heart health. Gluten-free crackers can be a healthy addition if they are low in sodium and made from whole grains.

D. Sweet potatoes are a nutrient-dense food high in potassium, fiber, and various vitamins and minerals. They are naturally low in sodium and are considered heart-healthy due to their potassium content, which helps counteract the effects of sodium on blood pressure.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The healthcare provider prescribes the antibiotic cefdinir 300 mg PO every 12 hours for a client with a postoperative wound infection. Which foods should the nurse encourage this client to eat?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is teaching dietary modifications to a client with hypertension. Which product is the best selection to include as part of the client's lunch?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is working on an infectious disease unit. Which client should be assigned to a room with negative airflow, while requiring personnel to use a particulate respirator mask, and requiring staff to observe airborne, as well as standard precautions?

Which client is best to assign to the practical nurse (PN) who is assisting the registered nurse (RN) with the care of a group of clients?

The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old client who is two hours postoperative from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding is an indication of arterial obstruction?

A young adult is brought to the emergency department after taking a handful of drugs. The client is unresponsive, so an endotracheal tube (ETT) is inserted. How should the nurse determine if the ETT is correctly placed? Select all that apply.

The healthcare provider prescribes a low-fiber diet for a client with ulcerative colitis. Which food selection indicates to the nurse that the client understands the prescribed diet? A Baked potato with skin, raw carrots.

A client is being treated for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). On examination, the client has a weight gain of 4.4 lbs (2 kg) in 24 hours and an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Exhibits The nurse reviews the healthcare providers (HCP) prescription for clonazepam and gives the medication as prescribed. Which nursing intervention(s) is/are appropriate for the client starting clonazepam? Select all that apply.